It seems I heard someone who (as far as I could tell) equated Matthew 9:34 with Matthew 12:24 and Mark 3:22 But it doesn't seem like the same to me. I heard also that Matthew is accused of splitting characters and stories into two where there should be one, such as the two blind people Jesus healed in Matthew 9 and they say it should be one person who was the blind and dumb demoniac Jesus healed in Matthew 12 and Mark 3. My thing is, the blind men in Matthew 9 SPOKE, while the other passages seem to agree that the blind AND dumb demoniac was mute and could not speak (this was all before they were healed). Also, why would Matthew repeat the same story twice in different ways three chapters apart?
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