GCC, that is as circular an example of reasoning as I have ever seen. If Paul had never written that one text "All Scripture is given by inspiration. . ." would you have concluded that the resurrection indicates inspired writings? Please explain.
Yes, I would.
What are the Scriptures? In the ancient Near East, when a treaty (covenant) was struck between two parties, the terms of the treaty were written down on tablets and the summary of them were placed in the central altar-place of the national temple.
This is exactly what the Israelites did in placing the ten commandments in the ark of the
covenant in the holy of holies.
So when it comes to the Torah, the Torah is the official covenant record of the covenant relationship between Yahweh and his people.
The New Testament is much the same. The word gospel, or good news, comes from the Greek
euangelion, which is not so much a literary genre as a declaration/proclaimation that a new Caesar has ascended to the throne. An apostle (emissary) of the new Caesar would go out to all the provinces of the empire and deliver an
euangelion describing the ascension of the new Caesar. This is exactly what the New Testament is- a declaration of the new Lord (the gospels) and his ascension, the record of that declaration (Acts), and an exposition of what that means for the people of his kingdom (the epistles).
All Scripture is the record of the relationship between the Great King and his people.
Historically, that's what they are. I don't need a single verse in Scripture to tell me that, but they fit the literary mode of comparable forms of declaration and
kerygma in the ancient Near East and first century. And because the Lord it proclaims was resurrected, I take that declaration with utter seriousness.
Make sense?