There have been 12 responses to the OP. 3 were in agreement. The rest were mostly just complaints about me and/or my "style".
As usual, you failed to read the refutations and address them and then turn around and boastfully make absurd claims that no one responds and just complains. Certainly some complain about your continual boasting and refusing to actually work in a text. I am one of them that feels you are not honest in your replies.
One poster did actually attempt to address the OP, but he got all confused by the difference between who Paul was writing to (believers) and who he was reminding those believers of what his initial message was that they believED. So he missed the whole point of the OP anyway.
Others who refuted your view completely understood your shallow view of the text you mentioned. The focus was upon the pronoun "our." You insisted that it must include unbelievers, but offered no evidence from the context.
Others refuted your shallowness by pointing to the pronoun in the preceeding verses (vs 2). They also pointed to the beginning of 1 Cor, other evidence of your error could be pointed to. Let me give you an example.
The passage in verse 1 starts with the addressee, when Paul says...
"Moreover, BRETHREN."
Then the pronouns follow a pattern. He "declare to you." Who is the "you" in
verse 1? Does that also include unbelievers? When then would Paul use the term "brethren?" Then he speaks to the brethren and says I preached unto "you." If they are unbeleivers at the time of the epistle, why would he address them as "brethren." Are unbelievers also his "brethren?" The next pronoun is "wherein you stand." Look at the "you" in that phrase." The brethen stand in what Paul was preaching, not unbelievers.
Of course then the warning comes in
verse 2 in which some believed (false faith) in vain. Of course this false faith is the exception to the pronoun "you are saved." In verse 3, when the pronoun "our" occurs you suddenly interject your theology into the passage and completely ignore the previous context about the brethren, who are saved, and then suddenly the term "our" must include unbelievers because not everyone Paul preached to in the past at Corinth was saved.
In
verse 3, it begins with the same pronoun "you." Paul even uses a similar term(not the same term but similar) to the term he used in verse 1. In verse 1 he declares unto you, and then in verse 3 he mentions how in the past he delivered unto them. The "you" must of course be the same group, the brethren.
The OP has not been refuted nor shown to be false in any way. Disagreement with my style or OP doesn't equate to a refutation.
Well, you are truly a waist of time. The statement above demonstrates it. The accusation no one refuted you and everyone either agrees with you or merely is disagreeing with your style is of course a lie. When you go to the extent of telling such falsehoods to claim no one refuted you, then you completed demonstrate you are a waist of time.
Your lack of honesty in such statements is the justification for all who complain about you. That of course is the real issue.
Paul's gospel message to the masses who had never heard the name of Christ (per Rom 15:20) was that "Christ died for OUR sins". That's what he preached to the masses.
How amazingly stupid of a statement. With such shallow statements, you obviously are not here to win Calvinists to your point of view. You claim to be here for "debate." Your statement assumes something so completely non-sequitur that it is amazing. Of course Paul preached to the unevangelized masses. How would that equate to Christ dieing for all those same unevangelized masses. In 1st Cor 15 Paul is speaking to the "brethren" that converted when he preached to those unevangelized masses.
If Calvinism were true, his message would be untrue, since it would be false to preach that "Christ died for OUR sins" if He hadn't died for everyone's sins.
It is common for Calvinists to proclaim that Christ died for our sins to unbelievers because of course we do not know who the elect are. If you understand what a Calvinist is saying, your would understand what Paul was doing. By the way, neither did Paul know who the elect were going to be.
The difference between you and Calvinists is your extremely limited view of the atonement, rather then the fuller view of Calvinists. The difference is (hypothetical possibility of salvation-- you). ( A true and full atonement--- Calvinists). You claim Christ shed his blood for those he never actually had any intent to save. So then, he died to make salvation available to those already in hell? Do you then believe that some of those in hell could get saved if it really makes it possible for them to get saved?
A full atonement saves us to the uttermost. It is a complete salvation that leaves nothing out. We come with empty pockets. Your claim is that we come with pockets full of our own faith. So then, you believe no more then a partial salvation, rather then a full and complete salvation.
Because we know that his message was true, we know that Calvinism's fixation on limited atonement is untrue.
Some Calvinists do not use the term "limited atonement." Some use the term "particular redemption." I heard some use "full atonement." If anyone has a "fixation" on the words, it would be people like you. The disappointing thing is that you do not understand the meaning of the term in its fulness and richness.
If you go back to the Remonstrants and their original statements, one thing is true about the term "unlimited atonement." The Remonstrants had a concept that Christ died not to save anyone, but to satisfy the justice of God. Hugo Grotius wrote about this. Once the justice of God is satisfied, then God can offer salvation to the whole world. That was called the "General" theory of atonement. Of course that stands in opposition to the "penal-substitutionary" view of the atonement that Calvinists took. The joke of all this is that people like you commonly try to straddle the fence by agreeing with a penal substitutionary theory of atonement, but then deny the particular redemption of Gods elect.
I love how the scriptures supports the penal substitutionary view by even the prepositions. In 1 Cor 15:3 the word "huper" is used. It means in behalf of or instead of. Christ paid the penalty in behalf of our sins. Nothing more is required for salvation. Yet you will say, more is required for salvation. We must have faith. By doing this, you make faith an addition to the shed blood of Christ for salvation. We have faith as being imparted to us because of Christs shed blood as the human requirement for justification.
Well, I have waisted too much time on someone who does not have ears to hear.