First of all i know Catholics point out some bible "verses" for infallibility like that binding or loosing,... But i have some questions (because i want to know the truth). First did He gave that right (to bind and loose, to forgive sins or retain them,...) to only the Apostoles or to theirs successors too? If yes successors too, then where are any successors of the Apostoles mentioned in the Bible and where in the Bible does He gives them that authority?
Second in 1 Peter 2:59 it says that we (believers) are all holy priesthood (correct me if im wrong) so if we are all holy priesthood and the Church i think consists of priests,
does that mean that we are all, not only the present priest that became priests
but all believers cannot make a mistake about faith because He is with us. So did he actually gave that infallibility to us, the holy priesthood (believers) who are the Church and not only to the ones who are the leaders of the Church(pope) or the ones we usually call priests?
Am i assuming correct here?
Also if the Church would be infallible and they did a right thing in the times of crusades, Spanish conquest of Mesoamerica,injustices to women,,...why did then pope John Paul II apologize for these things? Did he admitted that the Church did a wrong decision which would of been impossible if the Church is infallible?
Second in 1 Peter 2:59 it says that we (believers) are all holy priesthood (correct me if im wrong) so if we are all holy priesthood and the Church i think consists of priests,
does that mean that we are all, not only the present priest that became priests
but all believers cannot make a mistake about faith because He is with us. So did he actually gave that infallibility to us, the holy priesthood (believers) who are the Church and not only to the ones who are the leaders of the Church(pope) or the ones we usually call priests?
Am i assuming correct here?
Also if the Church would be infallible and they did a right thing in the times of crusades, Spanish conquest of Mesoamerica,injustices to women,,...why did then pope John Paul II apologize for these things? Did he admitted that the Church did a wrong decision which would of been impossible if the Church is infallible?