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Does dysnoetas mean nonsense?
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<blockquote data-quote="Light on the Hill" data-source="post: 77244763" data-attributes="member: 449833"><p>I think you overall give a good argument, one thing I want to posit and get some feedback on would be this.</p><p></p><p></p><p>I had read in that JWO article that the original wording of scripture would be better translated as "writings" (I believe YLT uses writings instead of scriptures" and that this would have been a subtlety for Peter to tell his audience that Paul's writings are wise, but not scripture. The article author argues that </p><p></p><p>"Paul is lowered not raised by equating him with "other <strong>graphe</strong>" -- other writings. It is not the term "holy writings," which is how Paul himself referred to an inspired writing. Even if the text refers to a "writing" in the Bible, it does not change the meaning of a "writing" as always inspired, just as we use the word "writing" to signify any kind of writing -- inspired or otherwise. </p><p></p><p>Non-inspired writings are simply called <strong>graphe</strong> in the Bible unless the context implies a reference to the Law or Prophets. Paul is thus equated by Second Peter with non-inspired writings, as Second Peter makes no implied reference to the Law or Prophets. It is a modern phenomenon that we hear the word <strong>writing</strong> when given as the capitalized synonymn <strong>Scripture</strong>, and we imply into it <strong>Holy Scripture</strong> -- a meaning far removed from Second Peter's intent. This is more fully explained below."</p><p></p><p>I am unsure if there is a separate Greek word for scripture as opposed to writings. For instance, does Paul use a different word beside graphe when he refers to his own epistles? Thanks!</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Light on the Hill, post: 77244763, member: 449833"] I think you overall give a good argument, one thing I want to posit and get some feedback on would be this. I had read in that JWO article that the original wording of scripture would be better translated as "writings" (I believe YLT uses writings instead of scriptures" and that this would have been a subtlety for Peter to tell his audience that Paul's writings are wise, but not scripture. The article author argues that "Paul is lowered not raised by equating him with "other [B]graphe[/B]" -- other writings. It is not the term "holy writings," which is how Paul himself referred to an inspired writing. Even if the text refers to a "writing" in the Bible, it does not change the meaning of a "writing" as always inspired, just as we use the word "writing" to signify any kind of writing -- inspired or otherwise. Non-inspired writings are simply called [B]graphe[/B] in the Bible unless the context implies a reference to the Law or Prophets. Paul is thus equated by Second Peter with non-inspired writings, as Second Peter makes no implied reference to the Law or Prophets. It is a modern phenomenon that we hear the word [B]writing[/B] when given as the capitalized synonymn [B]Scripture[/B], and we imply into it [B]Holy Scripture[/B] -- a meaning far removed from Second Peter's intent. This is more fully explained below." I am unsure if there is a separate Greek word for scripture as opposed to writings. For instance, does Paul use a different word beside graphe when he refers to his own epistles? Thanks! [/QUOTE]
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