The Indwelling-Gift of the Holy Spirit

Hermeneutico

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There is no case in the new testament that a person received the Holy Spirit outside the presence of an apostle.
Hi,

Your view is based upon some presuppositional theology. The fact of the matter, Apostle Paul disagrees with your assessment. How do we know? Because Paul wrote the Epistle to the Romans, where no apostle had ever been, and acknowledged that the believers in Rome had received the Gift of the Holy Spirit (Romans 5:5).
 
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concretecamper

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Hello,

That is not historically accurate. I have quotes from many church fathers, old catechisms, and even some old confessions, all older than 125 years ago. Perhaps I misunderstand you.

Blessings.
I am sure you can find some teachings not in line with the Gospel that are older than 125 years. My post said your idea has been a popular one only for the past 125 years.
 
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tonychanyt

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Hello Tony,

Yes. Additionally, I am saying that each word I listed above has its specific definition, yet, the Holy Spirit converged them into a singular event to express the many dimensional aspects of receiving the Gift of the Holy Spirit. This convergence does not necessarily mean absolute convergence, for each word retains its independent meaning. However, each specific word overlaps enough to express the moment one receives the Spirit Himself in human terms.

Blessings
How many times can a person get filled by the Holy Spirit? How many times does the Holy Spirit (Paraclete) take up residence in a person?

Also, see In terms of spiritual mechanics or dynamics, what does it mean being born again? and follow up there.
 
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Hermeneutico

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I am sure you can find some teachings not in line with the Gospel that are older than 125 years. My post said your idea has been a popular one only for the past 125 years.

For the first 1000 years of Christianity, ALL CHRISTIANS taught that one does not receive the Gift-Indwelling of the Holy Spirit until after conversion. It came to be known as Chrismation or Confirmation. In the Eastern Churches today, they have kept the ancient teaching alive. However, in the Western Church, there have been some changes. Therefore, the idea that I embrace was only popular in the first 1000 years of the Christian faith. Moreover, the idea that I teach is not taught in any popular fashion today. Classic Pentecostals, which I believe you are referring to, do not teach what I embrace. The view I hold is THE Historical faith.

Blessings
 
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Hermeneutico

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How many times can a person get filled by the Holy Spirit? How many times does the Holy Spirit (Paraclete) take up residence in a person?

Also, see In terms of spiritual mechanics or dynamics, what does it mean being born again? and follow up there.

The Holy Spirit takes up residence (indwells) the believer after conversion. Scripture uses the metaphor filled as "being under the control of." When one receives the Gift of the Holy Spirit, one is obviously under the control of the Holy Spirit. However, we must always allow the Holy Spirit to control or "fill us," once we experience the initial "filling" of the Holy Spirit through receiving Him personally, fully, and completely as a Gift.
 
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tonychanyt

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The Holy Spirit takes up residence (indwells) the believer after conversion. Scripture uses the metaphor filled as "being under the control of." When one receives the Gift of the Holy Spirit, one is obviously under the control of the Holy Spirit. However, we must always allow the Holy Spirit to control or "fill us," once we experience the initial "filling" of the Holy Spirit through receiving Him personally, fully, and completely as a Gift.
In the OT, did not King Saul experience the initial filling of the Holy Spirit?

In the NTActs 13:
>9 Then Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked straight at Elymas and said, 10 “You are a child of the devil and an enemy of everything that is right! You are full of all kinds of deceit and trickery. Will you never stop perverting the right ways of the Lord?​
Here, was Paul being filled with the Holy Spirit or indwelled with the Paraclete?
 
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Hermeneutico

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In the OT, did not King Saul experience the initial filling of the Holy Spirit?

In the NTActs 13:
>9 Then Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked straight at Elymas and said, 10 “You are a child of the devil and an enemy of everything that is right! You are full of all kinds of deceit and trickery. Will you never stop perverting the right ways of the Lord?​
Here, was Paul being filled with the Holy Spirit or indwelled with the Paraclete?

Saul of the Holy Testament was filled, at least temporarily.

Apostle Paul was initially filled (indwelt) in Acts 9. The larger semantic range is the word "filled" speaks of being under control of the Holy Spirit that now lives in Paul.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Hello Tony,

According to Scripture, the promise of the Father (Acts 1:4) is called being baptized with the Holy Spirit (Acts 1:5), which is a time when the Holy Spirit comes upon His People (Acts 1:8), filling them (Acts 2:4), because He is being poured out (Acts 2:17) and shed forth (Acts 2:33) upon them. Peter calls this same event receiving the Gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38), which is speaking of the time that the Holy Spirit would no longer be WITH the disciples but be IN (indwell) them (John 14:17). In fact, Peter himself exchanged the phrase "baptized with the Holy Spirit" (Acts 11:16) for "gift" of the Spirit" (Acts 11:17) and the "Holy Spirit fell on them" (Acts 11:15), which Luke recorded as “the Holy Spirit fell” (Acts 10:44), “the Gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out” (Acts 10:45), and they “received the Holy Spirit just as we have” (Acts 10:47).

Here's something I try to recommend people do when it comes to understanding what the Bible means by "baptism with the Holy Spirit", and that is pay extra close attention to where this phrase is used. And also to notice where it is not used.

With this in mind, I cannot find a single example of "baptism with the Holy Spirit" anywhere in the Bible in which it is a repeatable, individual experience of a person receiving the Holy Spirit.

In fact, biblically, this expression is related to only two events in the New Testament. The first is Pentecost, and the second was when--like at Pentecost--the Holy Spirit fell on the Gentiles at the household of Cornelius.

As for the claim in your OP that this was the view up until the Reformation, you'll need to back that one up a bit. The Pentecostal belief that baptism with the Holy Spirit is a subsequent experience, a receiving of the Spirit, after regeneration isn't the historic belief of the Christian Church, prior nor after the Reformation.

In the East Chrismation always accompanies Baptism, so while the two are considered distinct Sacraments they come together, along with the initial reception of the Eucharist. In the West Chrismation evolved into Confirmation, when the Reformation happened, Lutherans did not accept that Confirmation was a Sacrament, but retained it as a good practice, and instead we generally understand Chrismation not as a distinct Sacrament but as a dimension of Holy Baptism.

We (and I mean Lutherans) chrismate those who are brought into the Church through the waters of Holy Baptism, though we don't really view it as something distinct from Baptism itself. The child/convert is anointed with oil, hands are laid upon them with the words to receive the Holy Spirit; understanding that this promise of God is attached to the Gospel itself. Therefore the one who believes and is baptized has the Holy Spirit.

In this way every one who is born of God by His grace partakes of the blessings and gifts of Pentecost, when the Spirit came upon all flesh. For the entire Church received this baptism with the Spirit on Pentecost, the fulfillment of the words spoken by St. John the Baptist. So that whether Jew or Gentile, all who are Christ's are sealed with the Holy Spirit, through the faith which God grants them by His grace and His grace alone.

There's no need to repeat Pentecost for every person, because every one who enters into God's household of faith shares in the gifts and blessings of Pentecost.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Hermeneutico

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Here's something I try to recommend people do when it comes to understanding what the Bible means by "baptism with the Holy Spirit", and that is pay extra close attention to where this phrase is used. And also to notice where it is not used.

With this in mind, I cannot find a single example of "baptism with the Holy Spirit" anywhere in the Bible in which it is a repeatable, individual experience of a person receiving the Holy Spirit.

In fact, biblically, this expression is related to only two events in the New Testament. The first is Pentecost, and the second was when--like at Pentecost--the Holy Spirit fell on the Gentiles at the household of Cornelius.
Hello (First Answer to your post)

Yes, I have read the above theory in a few theological works. However, it isn't very exegetically sound.

1. As you already quoted me, "According to Scripture, the promise of the Father (Acts 1:4) is called being baptized with the Holy Spirit (Acts 1:5), which is a time when the Holy Spirit comes upon His People (Acts 1:8), filling them (Acts 2:4) because He is being poured out (Acts 2:17) and shed forth (Acts 2:33) upon them. Peter calls this same event receiving the Gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38), which is speaking of the time that the Holy Spirit would no longer be WITH the disciples but be IN (indwell) them (John 14:17). In fact, Peter himself exchanged the phrase "baptized with the Holy Spirit" (Acts 11:16) for "gift" of the Spirit" (Acts 11:17) and the "Holy Spirit fell on them" (Acts 11:15), which Luke recorded as "the Holy Spirit fell" (Acts 10:44), "the Gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out" (Acts 10:45), and they "received the Holy Spirit just as we have" (Acts 10:47)."

With all these terms referring to the same event, it is not logical to nuance one of the terms to make it a stand-alone term. There is an obvious overlap of all the above terms. This methodology would be equivalent to an exegetical fallacy known as "proof-texting."

2. Just because a term is mentioned a few times, this, in and of itself, does not determine its importance. For example, the epistles only mention the Lord's Supper one time. Does this reference mean that the Lord's Supper is not that important? No. Obviously not. For the view you affirm to be accurate, one must supply a great deal of supplementary Scriptural evidence to support it. For example, we know that the Lord's Supper is essential because of all the evidence written in the Gospels.

3. You said, "In fact, biblically, this expression is related to only two events in the New Testament. The first is Pentecost, and the second was when--like at Pentecost--the Holy Spirit fell on the Gentiles at the household of Cornelius."

Careful exegesis of the passage in Acts reveals that Peter included more than the apostles receiving the baptism with the Holy Spirit. For your theory that I just quoted to be accurate, it would need to clearly show that Baptism with the Holy Spirit ONLY referred to the FIRST event on the Day of Pentecost, but not the second event that took place with the 3,000 believers. However, Peter includes the 3,000 in his explanation:

Acts 11:16-17 LITV: "And I recalled the Word of the Lord, how He said, John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be BAPTIZED IN THE HOLY SPIRIT. (17) Then if God gave the SAME GIFT to them as also to US, believing on the Lord Jesus Christ, and I, who was I to be able to prevent God?"

Who is Peter referring to when he uses "US?"

Not only was he referring to the Apostles, but he was also referring to the Judeans. Beginning with Acts 2:9, notice how Luke includes the Judeans among the 3,000 on Pentecost. Some of the brethren from the Judean churches were with Peter when he went into the house of Cornelius.

Certain brethren from Joppa (Judeans) accompanied Peter to the house of Cornelius (Acts 10:23). Joppa is in the land of Judaea! After Cornelius and company received the Gift of the Holy Spirit and spoke in tongues, notice what Peter declares:

"Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as WE (Verse 47)?

Notice the "WE" in the text? Peter includes the Judeans. Why? Because the Judeans received the Gift of the Holy Spirit as the Apostles on the Day of Pentecost.

Notice who Peter is making his address to in Jerusalem later. He is still including the Judeans:

"And the apostles and brethren that were in Judaea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God. And when Peter was come up to Jerusalem, they that were of the circumcision contended with him (Acts 11:1-2).

Peter testified to these apostles and brethren from Judea:

"When I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on them. just as on US at the beginning (Acts 11:14 Amplified Bible)."

"Just as on US at the beginning"! Since there were no Judeans among the 120, the Judeans to whom Peter is now talking, obviously included in the word "US," received the Holy Spirit when they were added unto the church on the Day of Pentecost!

Popular theological positions are not always the more exegetically sound positions.

Blessings
 
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Hermeneutico

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As for the claim in your OP that this was the view up until the Reformation, you'll need to back that one up a bit. The Pentecostal belief that baptism with the Holy Spirit is a subsequent experience, a receiving of the Spirit, after regeneration isn't the historic belief of the Christian Church, prior nor after the Reformation.

In the East Chrismation always accompanies Baptism, so while the two are considered distinct Sacraments they come together, along with the initial reception of the Eucharist. In the West Chrismation evolved into Confirmation, when the Reformation happened, Lutherans did not accept that Confirmation was a Sacrament, but retained it as a good practice, and instead we generally understand Chrismation not as a distinct Sacrament but as a dimension of Holy Baptism.
Hello,

I will support my statement about pre Reformational beliefs regarding the timing of the reception of the Holy Spirit later with many quotes.

For now, I want to address your thinking about Chrismation. Although Chrismation usually occurs when one is water baptized, this isn't a simultaneous experience. Instead, it is a post-baptismal experience. Not only are new converts to Orthodoxy Chrismated after being baptized, but if one has already been water baptized, a Christian convert will not receive water baptism again, but he will be Chrismated. Thus, demonstrating that the Sacrament itself is considered a separate event (see Acts 8 and 19).


Blessings
....
 
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concretecamper

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For the first 1000 years of Christianity, ALL CHRISTIANS taught that one does not receive the Gift-Indwelling of the Holy Spirit until after conversion.
This is also false, however, I await you substantiating your claims. Should I hold my breath?
 
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HTacianas

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Yes, there is... Saul, long before he was an apostle, had hands laid upon him to receive the Gift of the Holy Spirit by Ananias.

Ananias was one of those who had that gift. But notice also that Paul received the Holy Spirit through the laying on of hands.
 
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HTacianas

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Hi,

Your view is based upon some presuppositional theology. The fact of the matter, Apostle Paul disagrees with your assessment. How do we know? Because Paul wrote the Epistle to the Romans, where no apostle had ever been, and acknowledged that the believers in Rome had received the Gift of the Holy Spirit (Romans 5:5).

When Paul wrote to the Romans Peter was already there. Else there would not have been a Church there at all. It didn't miraculously appear, someone went there and founded it.
 
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Hermeneutico

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As for the claim in your OP that this was the view up until the Reformation, you'll need to back that one up a bit. The Pentecostal belief that baptism with the Holy Spirit is a subsequent experience, a receiving of the Spirit, after regeneration isn't the historic belief of the Christian Church, prior nor after the Reformation.
Hello Brother,

Although there are some allusions to the idea of the fullness of, the abundance of, and clothed with the Holy Spirit by the Apostolic Fathers, I prefer to go to some direct quotes from the post-apostolic fathers regarding timing for the Gift of the Holy Spirit. It will take many more posts to answer your comment. The first Church Father we will look at is Irenaeus.

Much of what I am writing, and will write in other responses, regarding the Gift of the Spirit being separate from being a believer comes from two books:

1) Renewal Theology, by Dr. J. Rodman Williams
2) Christian Initiation and Baptism in the Holy Spirit: Evidence from the First Eight Centuries, by Fr. Dr. Kilian McDonnel and Fr. Dr. George Montague

Irenaeus (ca. 130-200):

Irenaeus, the first outstanding theologian of the early Church, in his Against Heresies, writes variously about faith and the reception of the Holy Spirit, the laying on of hands, and gifts of the Spirit. First, Irenaeus, in several places, associates the reception of the Holy Spirit with the laying on of hands after initial faith. For example, in discussing Acts 8 (about the Samaritans), Irenaeus writes:

"their filling with the Holy Spirit, through the imposition of hands, those who believed in God through Him who was preached by them, namely, Christ Jesus" (Bk. 1, chap. 23, Sect. l).

Also, in reference to I Corinthians 3:2 ("I fed you with milk, not solid food, for you were not yet ready for it"), Irenaeus writes:

"...the apostle had power to give them strong meat—for those upon whom the apostles laid hands received the Holy Spirit, who is the food of life—but they were not capable of receiving it, because they had the sentient faculties of the soul still feeble and undisciplined in the practice of things pertaining to God" (4, 38, 2).

It is interesting to note in this latter statement that Irenaeus not only associates the reception of the Spirit with the laying on of hands upon believers but also views the Corinthians as incapable of receiving the Spirit because of their feebleness of soul and lack of discipline. Additionally, It should be noted above that in the mind of Irenaeus, a person could be a believer and still not have received the Holy Spirit.

Irenaeus immediately proceeds to draw a parallel with the situation of man at the beginning of creation:

"So, in like manner, God had power at the beginning to grant perfection to man; but as the latter was only created anew, he could not possibly have received it, or even if he had received it, could he have retained it" (ibid.).

The newly created, or re-created, man may lack the capacity for receiving and retaining the Holy Spirit: he is not yet ready.

As just noted, Irenaeus views the reception of the Spirit as having to do with man's perfecting (God's granting of perfection). In this same connection, a further statement of Irenaeus, referring to I Corinthians 2:6, is quite relevant:
"...[so] does the apostle declare 'we speak wisdom among those who are perfect,' terming those persons 'perfect' who have received the Spirit of God" (5, 6, 1).

Thus, in such ways, Irenaeus speaks of the reception of the Holy Spirit as a further stage beyond initial faith.

He believed that the reception of the Spirit comes through progress in faith:

"Men, if they do truly progress by faith toward better things and receive the Spirit of God, and bring forth the fruit thereof shall be spiritual" (5, 10, 1).

It should be clearly understood that only those who already have faith can progress in faith, thus, separating those who believe from those who receive the Spirit.

Indeed, the overall picture Irenaeus portrays is that of life as progress or process and the reception of the Spirit occurring within the movement of faith.

Finally, in reference to the gifts of the Spirit, Irenaeus immediately follows the words (quoted above) with:

"So does the Apostle declare 'we speak wisdom among those who are perfect,' terming those persons 'perfect' who have received the Spirit of God" adds, "and who through the Spirit of God do speak in all languages, as he used to speak. In like manner, do we hear many brethren in the Church who possess prophetic gifts (4, 6, 1)?

Noteworthy is the close connection Irenaeus makes between receiving the Spirit and speaking "in all languages" (reminiscent of Acts 2) and the way in which this leads to mentioning "prophetic gifts." Something of the wide range of spiritual gifts attested by Irenaeus may be gathered from another passage:

"For some do certainly and truly drive out devils, so that those who have been cleansed from evil spirits frequently both believe and join themselves to the Church. Others have foreknowledge of things to come: they see visions, and utter prophetic expressions. Others still heal the sick by laying their hands upon them, and they are made whole. Yea, moreover...the dead have been raised up, and remained among us for many years. And what shall I more say? It is not possible to name the number of the gifts which the Church throughout the world has received from God" (2, 32, 4).

Blessings
 
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Hermeneutico

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This is also false, however, I await you substantiating your claims. Should I hold my breath?

Hello brother; I had to chuckle over your statement. Those who know me well understand that I do not say anything I cannot prove. I am a firm believer in evidence-based faith. I recommend that being dismissive is probably not the best approach when responding to others, but I understand why some feel the need to respond that way. Nonetheless,

Although there are some allusions to the idea of the fullness of, the abundance of, and clothed with the Holy Spirit by the Apostolic Fathers, I prefer to go to some direct quotes from the post-apostolic fathers regarding timing for the Gift of the Holy Spirit. It will take many more posts to answer your comment. The first Church Father we will look at is Irenaeus.

Much of what I am writing, and will write in other responses, regarding the Gift of the Spirit being separate from being a believer comes from two books:

1) Renewal Theology, by Dr. J. Rodman Williams.
2) Christian Initiation and Baptism in the Holy Spirit: Evidence from the First Eight Centuries, by Fr. Dr. Kilian McDonnel and Fr. Dr. George Montague.

Irenaeus (ca. 130-200):

Irenaeus, the first outstanding theologian of the early Church, in his Against Heresies, writes variously about faith and the reception of the Holy Spirit, the laying on of hands, and gifts of the Spirit. First, Irenaeus, in several places, associates the reception of the Holy Spirit with the laying on of hands after initial faith. For example, in discussing Acts 8 (about the Samaritans), Irenaeus writes:

"their filling with the Holy Spirit, through the imposition of hands, those who believed in God through Him who was preached by them, namely, Christ Jesus" (Bk. 1, chap. 23, Sect. l).

Also, in reference to I Corinthians 3:2 ("I fed you with milk, not solid food, for you were not yet ready for it"), Irenaeus writes:

"...the apostle had power to give them strong meat—for those upon whom the apostles laid hands received the Holy Spirit, who is the food of life—but they were not capable of receiving it, because they had the sentient faculties of the soul still feeble and undisciplined in the practice of things pertaining to God" (4, 38, 2).

It is interesting to note in this latter statement that Irenaeus not only associates the reception of the Spirit with the laying on of hands upon believers but also views the Corinthians as incapable of receiving the Spirit because of their feebleness of soul and lack of discipline. Additionally, It should be noted above that in the mind of Irenaeus, a person could be a believer and still not have received the Holy Spirit.

Irenaeus immediately proceeds to draw a parallel with the situation of man at the beginning of creation:

"So, in like manner, God had power at the beginning to grant perfection to man; but as the latter was only created anew, he could not possibly have received it, or even if he had received it, could he have retained it" (ibid.).

The newly created, or re-created, man may lack the capacity for receiving and retaining the Holy Spirit: he is not yet ready.

As just noted, Irenaeus views the reception of the Spirit as having to do with man's perfecting (God's granting of perfection). In this same connection, a further statement of Irenaeus, referring to I Corinthians 2:6, is quite relevant:
"...[so] does the apostle declare 'we speak wisdom among those who are perfect,' terming those persons 'perfect' who have received the Spirit of God" (5, 6, 1).

Thus, in such ways, Irenaeus speaks of the reception of the Holy Spirit as a further stage beyond initial faith.

He believed that the reception of the Spirit comes through progress in faith:

"Men, if they do truly progress by faith toward better things and receive the Spirit of God, and bring forth the fruit thereof shall be spiritual" (5, 10, 1).

It should be clearly understood that only those who already have faith can progress in faith, thus, separating those who believe from those who receive the Spirit.

Indeed, the overall picture Irenaeus portrays is that of life as progress or process and the reception of the Spirit occurring within the movement of faith.

Finally, in reference to the gifts of the Spirit, Irenaeus immediately follows the words (quoted above) with:

"So does the Apostle declare 'we speak wisdom among those who are perfect,' terming those persons 'perfect' who have received the Spirit of God" adds, "and who through the Spirit of God do speak in all languages, as he used to speak. In like manner, do we hear many brethren in the Church who possess prophetic gifts (4, 6, 1)?

Noteworthy is the close connection Irenaeus makes between receiving the Spirit and speaking "in all languages" (reminiscent of Acts 2) and the way in which this leads to mentioning "prophetic gifts." Something of the wide range of spiritual gifts attested by Irenaeus may be gathered from another passage:

"For some do certainly and truly drive out devils, so that those who have been cleansed from evil spirits frequently both believe and join themselves to the Church. Others have foreknowledge of things to come: they see visions, and utter prophetic expressions. Others still heal the sick by laying their hands upon them, and they are made whole. Yea, moreover...the dead have been raised up, and remained among us for many years. And what shall I more say? It is not possible to name the number of the gifts which the Church throughout the world has received from God" (2, 32, 4).

Blessings
 
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Hermeneutico

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Ephesians 5:18 LITV: And "do not be drunk with wine," in which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit.

Going from the general to the specific, Paul explained how wisdom, as an intellectual and spiritual capacity, works out in one's conduct. Verse 18 includes a negative command and a positive one. The negative is to abstain from getting drunk on wine with which there is incorrigibility. The word asōtia is translated as debauchery (NIV, RSV), "excess" (KJV), "riot" (ASV), and "dissipation" (NASB). All these give the idea of profligate or licentious living that is wasteful. In this verse, the literal sense of incorrigibility seems best, for a drunken man acts abnormally. Rather than controlling himself, the wine controls him. Conversely, the positive command is, Be filled with the Spirit. Thus a believer, rather than controlling himself, is controlled by the Holy Spirit. Thus in this relationship, as a believer is yielded to the Lord and controlled by Him, he increasingly manifests the fruit of the Spirit (Gal. 5:22–23). After a believer is initially filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 2, 8, 9, 10, and 19), believers are commanded to be filled (under the control of the Spirit) constantly. Each Spirit-Filled Christian has all the Spirit, but the command here is that the Spirit is to have all of him. The Holy Spirit's control characterizes the wise walk.
 
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Ananias was one of those who had that gift. But notice also that Paul received the Holy Spirit through the laying on of hands.

No Scripture anywhere teaches that Ananias had a special gift that imparted the Gift of the Holy Spirit. That idea is a mere assumption.

I have no problem with the doctrine of the laying on of hands for the reception of the Holy Spirit. However, Scripture affirms that the Gift of the Holy Spirit may come outside of that methodology.

Embracing all the evidence written in Scripture, it follows by necessary inference:

1. The Gift of the Holy Spirit may be received by laying on hands.
2. The Gift of the Holy Spirit may be received without the laying on of hands.
3. The Gift of the Holy Spirit may be received through the ministry of the Apostles.
4. The Gift of the Holy Spirit may be received without the presence of Apostles.
 
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Hermeneutico

Orthodox-Pentecostal
Aug 6, 2012
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When Paul wrote to the Romans Peter was already there. Else there would not have been a Church there at all. It didn't miraculously appear, someone went there and founded it.

Some undoubtedly believe that to be the case. However, this cannot be verified if one takes the actual historical evidence. Moreover, not only does Paul not write a greeting at the beginning of his epistle, including Peter as an addressee, he does not include Peter's name in the list of those he desires to have greeted in Rome in Romans 16. The Church probably began by those who went back to Rome to share their experience on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:10)
 
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