'FORNICATION' meaning in 1st century is still the same today

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Cuddles333

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This word is thrown around more than any other New Testament word. Christians have been taught that it is a blanket word, a 'catch-all' word for any act with possible sexual connotations. It has been used for hundreds of years to control how people expressed physical affection and how they dressed. The meaning expanded with the times. What was considered 'fornication' during one time period, later was not considered.

The word originated in the ancient Roman language of Latin. It first started as FORNIX from ancient Roman architecture 'arch' . Pagan prostitutes would perform worship service to their god or goddess for/with the clients under these arches. By the 1st century, pagan temples were littering the villages and cities of the Middle East and along the missionary routes of the Apostle Paul.

Jesus had this to say about any of His married followers that visited any of these temples; "Whosoever shall divorce his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which has been put away (on grounds other than fornication) doth commit adultery." (Mt.19:9)

It is interesting that both pagan temple prostitute visiting and adultery, were both grounds for stoning under the Law of Moses! This is why His disciples proclaimed that it was best that a man never marry then!

For hundreds of years Bible translators and Bible scholars have deceived Christians by translating 'pornia' as: 'any act deemed sexually immoral'. With this meaning, a Christian can divorce their spouse for buying a Sports Illustrated Swimsuit edition, having any 'R' rated movies in their collection, the wife wearing a skirt above the ankle, etc. etc. It is actually a resurrection of the Old Testament (Law of Moses) Deut.24:1-4 "When a man marries and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found something unseemly in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out from his house and she goes and becomes another man's wife, and if the latter husband turns against her, and gives her a certificate of divorce, or he dies, then her first husband is not allowed to take her back, since she has now been defiled."

I throw out my challenge of debate.
 
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