There is not a single instance in the New Testament or any other early Christian literature in which the word ἀποστασία express the concept “departure.” The only meanings found in the New Testament and other early Christian literature are, “defiance of established system or authority,” that is “rebellion, abandonment, breach of faith” (BDAG Greek-English Lexicon, p. 120).
There are, however, instances in early classical literature, a very different dialect of Greek, in which the word ἀποστασία express the concept “departure” as in “defection” or “revolt.” Furthermore, this usage in classical Greek is always used in the active sense rather than the passive sense—that is, it expresses something that someone does, NOT what is done to someone. The rapture is not something that Christians do, it is something that God does to Christians. Therefore, the word ἀποστασία cannot possibly express the concept of the rapture.
2 Thes. 2:3. Let no one deceive you in any way; for that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of perdition,
4. who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. (RSV)
You’re stressing irrelevant facts.
Apostasia has five definitions, including “divorce.” It has a connotation of meaning “departure” and “disappearance, as noted the Liddel & Scott Greek- English Lexicon’s second definition for “apostasia.”
If apostasia appeared only five times in the Bible, applying each of its five definitions only once, then your implied “rules” would only lead to complete confusion.
On the other hand, even with its five definitions, let’s pretend apostasia only appeared once in the Bible. What then do we do? We go by the all-important context to determine which of its five definitions best fits the context.
First, do you know that “falling away” never appeared in 2 Th 2:3 until the first KJV, in 1611? Do you also know that KJV has never been willing to say why they made that sea change in 2 Th 2:3? It’s all very suspicious, and it’s all provably a whopper of an error. That all relates to the context, as well, as you will see.
Paul had never written about a falling away. Where it appears first in his works is in Acts, long after he wrote 2 Th 2. Paul had written before about the rapture: 1 Th 1:10, 1 Th 4:16-17 and 1 Th 5:1-3 (adding to 1 Th 1:10).
Here’s 2 Th 2:1 (NLT): Now, dear brothers and sisters, let us clarify some things about the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and how we will be gathered to meet him.
That aligns with 1 Th 4:17’s words “to meet the Lord in the air, …” —— Therefire, Paul was referencing the rapture. That makes “the rapture” as the context.
Verse 1 can’t be about the 2A (2nd Advent) for two reasons: (1): there’s no “gathering unto Him” in Matt 24:31. That verse does not say where the gathered go. There are only two options: (A) As part of the armies in
Rev 19:14 or (B) As part of those in
Matt 25:34-40.
The next two verses will prove there was
a deception carried out against Paul’s Thessalonian flock. As noted in verse 2, his flock was deceived by a fraudulent letter, made to appear to be from Paul, in that they had missed the rapture and were now in the Trib (Day of the Lord). In verse 3, Paul corrects his flock by saying “that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, …” Paul was correcting his flock about the timing of the rapture: it will occur before the Trib (Day of the Lord).
Here’s 2 Th 2:2 (NLT): Don’t be so easily shaken or alarmed by those who say that the day of the Lord has already begun. Don’t believe them, even if they claim to have had a spiritual vision, a revelation, or a letter supposedly from us.
2 Th 2:3 (GNV): Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that that man of sin be disclosed, even the son of perdition.
“That day” in verse 3 is the “day of the Lord” in verse 2. Paul therefore meant the Trib hasn’t started because the rapture comes first.
KJV not only got it wrong, but as wrong as it could be. The “falling away” occurs years later, in the Trib, per Matt 24:10.
