First of all, thank you for accurately paraphrasing my argument. You know how hard that sort of thing is to come by around here. And you're much better about that than most.
Sure.
Let's start at the end:
Do you think that civil law ought to punish theft but not gift-giving?
Of course. Because I don't think civil law should be driven by a concept of justice. Sometimes giving people what they deserve produces something good, and that's a good law. Sometimes giving people what they deserve
does not produce something good, and that's a bad law.
My semantic question about your definition of Justice 2.0 is still at play at a certain level. Do you have any way to justify your claim that civil law ought to punish theft rather than gift-giving? Do you have a rational basis for that claim? If so, what is it? Is there something to your judgment beyond whim? (Employing evaluations of "good" and "bad" without any further explanation certainly
would be an instance of special pleading, so presumably you need to do more than that)
So now we get into my teaser question. Can a law be unjust? If justice is only concerned with unlawful acts, then it seems the law informs us of what is just, and justice doesn't inform us of what should be a law.
Haha - apparently my attempt to shorten the length of posts is going to fail miserably. I should have intervened after you gave the teaser. I expected you to criticize the notion of natural law. Now I expect you to do that in the next post.
First, as an aside for the sake of fun, let me quote a passage I read today. I stumbled upon Augustine's famous dictum in Kevin Flannery's
Cooperation with Evil: Thomistic Tools of Analysis:
De libero arbitrio is a dialogue between two literary characters, one called Augustine, the other Evodius. As he discusses killing in self-defense with Evodius, the position of Augustine shifts occasionally; but one thesis remains firm in his mind. It is expressed in the following:
So, is not the law just which gives to a traveller the power to kill a highwayman lest he be killed by him—or [which gives] to any man or woman [the power] to kill, if possible, a violently onrushing rapist before being raped? For a soldier is even ordered by law to kill an enemy and, if he declines to effect this bloodshed [caede], a penalty is levied by the emperor. Are we to be so bold as to say that these laws are unjust—or, indeed, null and void?[19]
[Footnote 19] [...] The very next sentence reads: “
For it seems to me that a law which will not have been just is no law at all” [“Nam mihi lex esse non videtur, quae iusta non fuerit”]. This remark is one of Augustine’s most famous—or, among legal positivists, infamous. [...]
So now we get into my teaser question. Can a law be unjust? If justice is only concerned with unlawful acts, then it seems the law informs us of what is just, and justice doesn't inform us of what should be a law.
Of course civil law can be unjust. There are two places where I alluded to the fact that I was not intending "law" only in the sense of civil law (or human law):
- "Justice is interested in balanced exchange only in relation to the law, whether that law be natural or civil."
- "The (natural) law does not say that a man cannot receive a free gift of $100 from another, but it does say that a man who did not do something cannot receive a reward for doing it."
...Scant but existent.
Something which is against civil law--or more precisely, legitimate civil law--would be unjust. But that which is against natural law would also be unjust, even if civil law does not legislate against it. As a starting point we might just say that the natural law is morality as known by human reason. The natural law is precisely what we refer to when we argue that a civil law is unjust (or just, for that matter).
To take a familiar example, the nature of private property is known by natural law. It is wrong for someone to steal my coat no matter what country we are in, or even if we are in no country at all.
To try to avoid a deep rabbit hole we might just say that injustice transgresses the natural law insofar as it transgresses a law known to human reason, though not fully known by all. My general point is that we don't take offense at every act which creates an imbalance, but only at certain kinds of acts which create an imbalance, and that far from being arbitrary, there is something deeply reasonable about why we take offense at some things and not others.
But most importantly, if you're defining justice as being decided by what is lawful, and not the other way around, I think you've redefined desert right out of the definition of justice. "Unlawful action regarding private property" as you say doesn't involve an imbalance. And earlier, "The set of rules that ought to guide the actions and exchanges that take place between humans" doesn't mention balance either. So justice isn't about what is deserved, or fairness, or balance anymore and these things aren't intrinsically good.
So: what is the relation of justice, law, desert, fairness, and balance?
A very common definition of justice is, "the perpetual and constant will to render to each one his right" (or his due) [
ST II.II.58.1]. Thomas is talking about justice as a virtue. We might simply say that justice is "to render to each one his right/due."
We have been primarily focused on injustices and the justices that rectify them. So an injustice would transgress a right or what someone is due (or what someone deserves). The injustice would of course be unfair and would create an imbalance in the form of a debt to the person you acted unjustly towards. Justice requires that you rectify the injustice by paying the debt and restoring balance or harmony.
Thomas says that law is a special kind of right, though he is talking there about human law rather than natural law (you may find his
articles on Right interesting). My point regarding "law" is that not every imbalance is the object of justice. So we might say that law is the collection of "rights" or the collection of things that humans are due. Assuming that civil law is just it will tend to cover the more important rights/dues, whereas non-civil natural law would cover smaller rights/dues (technically natural law also includes things unrelated to justice, but I digress... again...
).
In simple terms, not all human actions fall into the realm of justice because the "law" (civil or natural) contains some rights/dues but not others. For example, the right to private property establishes that asymmetrical relation between the human acts of theft and the human acts of gift-giving. The imbalances that justice cares about are imbalances that impinge on rights/dues, and these are collected by law.
Let me consider this quote out of order:
But aside from that, justice balances things according to weight. We don't give the death penalty for shoplifting. Too severe a punishment is unjust even when some punishment is deserved. The weight of your action should be weighed against the weight of the punishment, even if it's only considered when it's law.
But you are using "weight" metaphorically, just as you are using "balance" metaphorically. How much weight does the idea of theft have? How much does the idea of murder have? Technically none, because ideas are immaterial entities.
You have been claiming that folks resort to special pleading with regard to justice because they don't care about all imbalances.
But the notion that there even is some objective definition of "imbalance" or "all imbalances" is itself a form of "special pleading." All concepts of balance, no matter how metaphorical, require a system of weight and measurement. We might say that green and yellow are imbalanced, or light and darkness are imbalanced, or horses and ponies are imbalanced, or that Anakin Skywalker is unbalanced... These are highly equivocal uses, and they require an account of
what is being balanced.
It's funny, sometimes you make argumentum absurdums and I'm all like, "Yeah, totally!". Every action does lead to an imbalance.
But the terminus of the
reductio is the negation of civil law. If civil law is based on justice and justice is based on balance and balance is either arbitrary or impossible to measure, then civil law is an impossibility. That is why I "started at the end" above. We both agree that imbalance is ubiquitous.
Consider the following statement, "A person should only receive X if they deserve X". If folks getting what they deserve is intrinsically good, then it's true.
I think you're tripping on those "only if's" again. First, I don't agree with that first conditional, and secondly, your second conditional is logically false. Instead of parsing it let's just edit your first conditional by removing the word "only." In that case what you say would probably fly.
But because you're saying that it's only sometimes true depending on what X is, then what is good is determined by the nature of X and not by what is deserved.
I don't think so. In my last post I was saying that the law defines what is due or what is deserved. That is, the law defines what X's are deserved.
...So I realize we're already back in the weeds. We'll probably just have to try to make due as we always do. I'll try to cut out some unimportant stuff and shorten it where I can.
I have been pondering ways to make argument more effective and productive for those without formal training (but I have not tried very hard, I assure you). One very simple thing I've decided on is the importance of stating the conclusions each person is aiming at, both intermediate and final conclusions. So I'll do that with some short argumentation attached:
First, giving gifts is not unjust because it does not create an imbalance or inequality that is relevant to justice. That is, there is no law, right, or due that prohibits giving or receiving gifts. To put it simply: there is nothing wrong with giving gifts.
Second, if the concept of justice is based on arbitrary balancing then civil law would be either arbitrary or impossible, and it is neither. Therefore the concept of justice is not based on arbitrary balancing.
...those two conclusions are my only aim at this stage, apart from answering your objections.
And again, you would call that act unjust because it is aiding evil doing, not because of what is deserved.
Evildoers deserve to be not-aided.
But giving gifts is a good thing to do; they're a thing you ought to do.
Supposing that it is good to do some thing, it does not follow that there is a person who deserves to have that thing done to them. It doesn't follow that anyone has a right to the good act. There is no obligation to give gifts.
Does the (natural) law not say, frinstance, that you should give some money to a starving beggar. That would "fulfill" the law making it just.
Perhaps, but the moral authorities who argue that you have an obligation to share some food with a starving man would not see it as a gift. They would say that the man has a right to your food and you are obliged to give it. We are no longer in gift territory.
The law isn't only a bunch of "don't" to you, is it?
No, but you've skirted my point. My claim was that it is not unjust to give a gift because although the recipient does not deserve the gift, he does not deserve to not-have the gift. No right or due is being violated in the case of gift giving. Even if a starving beggar has a right to food, that does not mean that people have a general right to gifts.
But this also goes back to "A person should only receive X if they deserve X". If this is only sometimes true depending on X, then the nature of X determines whether it's good or not, not what is deserved.
The reason it's not true is because we can receive things we don't deserve, even though we should receive all things that we are due. See my distinction between the two senses of "deserve" in my last post.
I don't really understand the point you are trying to make here. If you want to maintain this tack, then please include in your clarification the precise kind of "deserving" you are referring to. I gave the two options above.
Sorry, you lost me. All just acts are good, not all good acts are just?
Right.
But you've defined "just" as "lawful" now, so aren't all good acts lawful and therefore all good acts are just?
No, if "just" is defined as "lawful" then they can be substituted in propositions. So all lawful acts are good and not all good acts are lawful. The transitive syllogism you are fishing for is as follows: if all just acts are good, and all lawful acts are just, then all lawful acts are good.
Look at this again: "the set of rules that ought to guide the actions and exchanges that take place between humans". How is this not the complete set of what acts are good?
Two reasons spring to mind immediately. First, not all acts take place between humans. Second, by "the actions" I did not mean "all actions." For example, beneficent acts are good but they are not guided by a set of rules or laws. In the same way, civil law guides human actions and interactions without guiding each and every one.
Sure the restaurant is harmed. It cost them something, that's harm. They don't just want you to eat there, they are willing to sacrifice their capital and time in exchange for your money. Sacrifice is harm. Sometimes harm is for a good end. Sometimes I want to be harmed even if I don't enjoy that harm. I want to be harmed by the pin-prick of receiving the Covid vaccine, for example.
I think you're talking goofy. Not all cost is harm. I buy a watch at a cost but I am not harmed in the transaction. As a general rule consensual transactions benefit us, they do not harm us.
Okay, ya got me. I was only thinking of what the bloke who broke my windshield owes me, but yes, the interactions with the court can bring their own imbalances such that the court and/or judge now owes me something else.
Okay.
But you said that they're the same thing. Forgiving a debt is giving a gift. The only reason we're talking about gifts is because I brought up forgiveness, and you said that forgiveness is just a gift, and we wouldn't say a gift is unjust.
They aren't the same, but the analysis is the same in many ways. The difference between a gift and forgiveness is the presence of a debt. A gift is the simpler case. It would be much easier to claim that justice has been neglected with regard to forgiveness than with regard to a gift. We're going to stick with the simpler concept before moving to the more complex, especially since I am arguing with a guy who just claimed that all cost implies harm.
So when you good Christian folk die you deserve to go to Heaven?
No, I merely said that a debt was forgiven, not that something else was deserved.
I'll give you credit for being one of the only people to not try and completely dodge the responsibility I implied in that thread, though. Some folks literally insisted I didn't have to do anything. So I said, "Okay. I'm doing nothing now, and I'll keep doing nothing so that I go to Heaven."
Haha - yes, that is a tricky question for Protestants. I did see some of those exchanges.
Actually, I think that even though there are a few things that everyone else agrees is fine and not unjust, there's enough disagreement on what we should deem to be "just" that we have to define it so broadly. I'm pointing out that the necessarily broad definition creates a problem of it's own.
I don't think we define justice broadly as a result of disagreement. I think the concept of justice is slippery because it's inherently difficult to pin down. Socrates has a heyday with justice in Plato's dialogues. It is easily one of the most elusive concepts that exists. Humans are so variegated and complex that trying to get a grasp on proper conduct turns out to be quite difficult.
That said, some questions regarding justice are perfectly obvious. Everyone knows that things like stealing, murder, and adultery are unjust.
Of course. Because I don't think civil law should be driven by a concept of justice. Sometimes giving people what they deserve produces something good, and that's a good law. Sometimes giving people what they deserve does not produce something good, and that's a bad law.
What should it be driven by?