To Olliefranz
The verses describe the alternative to faithful man/woman marriage, someone who is unable to be in a faithful marriage for the three reasons given, hence "eunouchos," . You make it sound as if Matthew wasnt reporting correctly what Jesus said, as if you were there. Sorry but the text says "eunouchos so if He actually said saris Deuteronomy 23 would be an example of made that way by men.
I was replying to a poster who claimed that the word eunuch in the Bible always means someone definied by Deuterononmy 23:1. I was not claiming that Matthew was not reporting correctly, but rather pointing out that after translating from Aramaic to Greek and Greek to English, some part of the meaning got lost in translation. And to understand the point of the teaching, it is necessary to recognize that "eunuch" as used in a translation of the Bible does not always mean exactly the same as "eunuch" as defined in modern usage (which is usually restricted to the Deuteronomy description).
1 Cor 7 merely refers to those who dont marry and those
The alternative Jesus gives is to faithful marriage, if one had no interest in women they wouldnt need an alternative.
Ok Up until now, you have claimed that the only emotion gays have is lust, and that's a sin. Now you are saying that they don't need alternative channel (like marriage) to lust for their sex drive. So have you changed your mind aboutgays only lusting, or are you denying them 1 Corinthians 10:13, and claimintg that there is no escape for them?
The fact is Jesus in Matthew 19 affirms Genesis 2 that God created woman for man to be in union, that someone has no interest in women is merely their choice to celibacy. If they decide on same sex unions it against Gods creation purpose.
I guess that answers my question. You are denying that 1 Corinthians 10:13 applies to gays.
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