NT says do not become slaves of men...I Corinthians 7:23; so we are clear on that as stated above.Why do you guys always bring American slavery into this? And no, that is not what the bible says. Read Lev 25:44-46. The fact is even if they were treated the very best they are still slaves and owned as property by other people and God allowed for that.
Why could God not have provided for His people without allowing for an immoral system to take care of them?
Nope, please read your bible. There were slaves taken against their will and slaves forever. Read Lev 25:44-46.
But can you please respond to my assertion that even if the slaves were treated well does not mean that people owning people as property is moral.
OT is seems condoned, but also seems that among Isrealites that it was frowned upon also to become a slave...perhaps not managing money properly; though at times it was due to misfortune and God provided a way out in the Jubilee.
We know that Isrealites were allowed to take slaves from among the foreigners added to their numbers, but it was a process to integrate them or marry such a woman (after purification.)
Some became slaves for life by choice and God commanded an awl be driven into their ear...condoned if they loved their masters. (Deuteronomy 15:17)
The faithful wavered. At times they had hardened and darkened hearts for which Moses in the instance of divorce alone here, it is clearly stated, compensated fo by issuing certificates of divorce, that is OT to NT...
(Matthew 19:8)
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