Why did the man call Jesus "Good Teacher"?

[tonychanyt]

Luke 10:

25 Behold, a lawyer stood up to put him to the test, saying, “Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?”​

The lawyer did not use the label "Good Teacher".

26He said to him, “What is written in the Law? How do you read it?” 27And he answered, “You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength and with all your mind, and your neighbor as yourself.” 28And he said to him, “You have answered correctly; do this, and you will live.”​

29 But he, desiring to justify himself, said to Jesus, “And who is my neighbor?”​

He wanted to test Jesus and desired to justify himself to inherit eternal life.

Elsewhere a similar character appeared in Mark 10:

17 As Jesus started on His way, a man ran up and knelt before Him. "Good Teacher," he asked, "what must I do to inherit eternal life?"​

This man humbled himself by kneeling before Jesus.

Parallel account Luke 18:18 A ruler asked him, “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”

Parallel account Matthew 19:16 Behold, a man came up to him, saying, “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?”

Combining the accounts:
A ruler knelt before Jesus and said, "Good Teacher, what good deeds must I do to inherit eternal life?"

The ruler seemed to be saying: I am good like you, doing good things. I should have eternal life. Am I right?

Bursting his bubble, Luke 18:19 Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone.

Parallel account Matthew 19:17a He said to him, “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good.”

Jesus corrected the ruler's self-confidence by telling him that strictly speaking only God is good enough to have eternal life.

Why did the ruler call Jesus "Good Teacher"?

He used the adjective in the everyday sense, thinking that he himself was good enough. Knowing that he misapplied this key concept to eternal life, Jesus corrected him that no one is good enough to have eternal life except God.

 

[Clare73]

Luke 10:

25 Behold, a lawyer stood up to put him to the test, saying, “Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?”​

The lawyer did not use the label "Good Teacher".

26He said to him, “What is written in the Law? How do you read it?” 27And he answered, “You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength and with all your mind, and your neighbor as yourself.” 28And he said to him, “You have answered correctly; do this, and you will live.”​

29 But he, desiring to justify himself, said to Jesus, “And who is my neighbor?”​

He wanted to test Jesus and desired to justify himself to inherit eternal life.

Elsewhere a similar character appeared in Mark 10:

17 As Jesus started on His way, a man ran up and knelt before Him. "Good Teacher," he asked, "what must I do to inherit eternal life?"​

This man humbled himself by kneeling before Jesus.

Parallel account Luke 18:18 A ruler asked him, “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”

Parallel account Matthew 19:16 Behold, a man came up to him, saying, “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?”

Combining the accounts:
A ruler knelt before Jesus and said, "Good Teacher, what good deeds must I do to inherit eternal life?"

The ruler seemed to be saying: I am good like you, doing good things. I should have eternal life. Am I right?

Bursting his bubble, Luke 18:19 Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone.

Parallel account Matthew 19:17a He said to him, “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good.”

Jesus corrected the ruler's self-confidence by telling him that strictly speaking only God is good enough to have eternal life.

Why did the ruler call Jesus "Good Teacher"?

He used the adjective in the everyday sense, thinking that he himself was good enough. Knowing that he misapplied this key concept to eternal life, Jesus corrected him that no one is good enough to have eternal life except God.

In all three accoutns Jesus gives the same answer: Only one is good--God.
That is his point. You are acknowledging that I am God.

 

[tonychanyt]

You are acknowledging that I am God.

Thanks for the comment

Do you think you can prove that by First-Order Logic?

 

[Clare73]

Thanks for the comment

Do you think you can prove that by First-Order Logic?

I'll leave that to you. . .the word of God is my only proof.

 

[tonychanyt]

the word of God is my only proof.

Can you show the steps in your proof?

 

[Clare73]

Can you show the steps in your proof?

No more than I can show the steps in Jn 3:36.

 

[Diamond72]

Parallel account Matthew 19:16 Behold, a man came up to him, saying, “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?”

The rabbi have 613 laws. Jesus summed the all up into love God and love your neighbor. Even we are to love our enemy and do good to those who intend to harm us.

 

[Berserk]

Question: "Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?"
Jesus' reply: "Why do you call me good? No one is good, but God (Mark 10:17-18)."

Some interpreters take Jesus' answer to deny both that He is good and that He is God.
They cite as evidence that Jesus felt the need for John's baptism of repentance. They argue that John's protest (Matthew 3:14-15) in no way invalidates this implication; for by feeling the need for baptismal repentance. Jesus "fulfills all righteousness," and so, He is not merely trying to set a good example. They argue that Jesus is not fishing for acclamation as "God" because (1) the context does not focus on His identity and (2) Jesus views Himself as "the Son of God," but not as "God." Do these implications force us to rethink what we mean by the sinlessness of Christ? What do we actually mean by this doctrine? Do we mean that Jesus never had to mature by trial and error like the rest of us?

Matthew's Revised Version:

Question: "Teacher, what good dead must I do to inherit eternal life?"
"Jesus' reply: "Why do you ask me concerning what is good (Matthew 19:16-17)?"

In copying Mark, Matthew is offended by both implications and alters the wording to eliminate them. He drops the modifier "good" from
teacher" to erase the necessity of Jesus' addressing whether He is good and whether He is God.

 

[Diamond72]

In copying Mark, Matthew is offended by both implications

Why would Matthew copy Mark. Matthew was a disciple and traveled with Jesus, so he had a lot more teaching than Mark did. Mark was the son of Mary, the women who owned the upper room. He was young but loved the teaching and listened in. Even at the time of Paul, Mark was still considered to be young and not very dependable. But as he grew, and matured Paul had good things to say about him. Also, after Luke intervened to patch things up between them.

 

[Berserk]

Why would Matthew copy Mark. Matthew was a disciple and traveled with Jesus, so he had a lot more teaching than Mark did. Mark was the son of Mary, the women who owned the upper room. He was young but loved the teaching and listened in. Even at the time of Paul, Mark was still considered to be young and not very dependable. But as he grew, and matured Paul had good things to say about him. Also, after Luke intervened to patch things up between them.

One of the first things you learn in seminary, evangelical or not, is that Mark was a source for both Matthew and Luke. Matthew copies 90% of Mark and Luke copies 55% of Mark. Matthew did not write the Gospel that bears his name. Papias, a first-century bishop, was in contact with Jesus' disciples and learnt that Matthew wrote a sayings collection (perhaps the source NT scholars call Q) that was probably used by both by both Matthew and Luke, not a Gospel. There are 2 telltale signs of Matthew's use of Mark: (1) Mark's unique literary style shows up in Matthew when and only when He follows Mark. Variant readings between Mark and Matthew are always more comprehensible on the assumption that Matthew is altering Mark to serve his unique purposes. On the other hand, Papias learns, Mark provides Peters teaching notes which he acquired as Peter's interpreter in Rome.

 

[Clare73]

Question: "Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?"
Jesus' reply: "Why do you call me good? No one is good, but God (Mark 10:17-18)."

Some interpreters take Jesus' answer to deny both that He is good and that He is God.
They cite as evidence that Jesus felt the need for John's baptism of repentance. They argue that John's protest (Matthew 3:14-15) in no way invalidates this implication; for by feeling the need for baptismal repentance. Jesus "fulfills all righteousness," and so, He is not merely trying to set a good example. They argue that Jesus is not fishing for acclamation as "God" because (1) the context does not focus on His identity and (2) Jesus views Himself as "the Son of God," but not as "God." Do these implications force us to rethink what we mean by the sinlessness of Christ? What do we actually mean by this doctrine? Do we mean that Jesus never had to mature by trial and error like the rest of us?

Matthew's Revised Version:

Question: "Teacher, what good dead must I do to inherit eternal life?"
"Jesus' reply: "Why do you ask me concerning what is good (Matthew 19:16-17)?"

In copying Mark, Matthew is offended by both implications and alters the wording to eliminate them. He drops the modifier "good" from
teacher" to erase the necessity of Jesus' addressing whether He is good and whether He is God.

Jesus is pointing out that the man, unknowlingly, is acknowledging that Jesus is God.

 

[Diamond72]

One of the first things you learn in seminary, evangelical or not, is that Mark was a source for both Matthew and Luke.

That is why they call it Cemetary. There is a lot of dead teaching there. Luke could have learned from Mark. They did travel together. Luke spent a lot of time with Mary. This is where we learn the stories of Jesus when he was 12 years old.

 

[Berserk]

That is why they call it Cemetary. There is a lot of dead teaching there. Luke could have learned from Mark. They did travel together. Luke spent a lot of time with Mary. This is where we learn the stories of Jesus when he was 12 years old.

A crude pontification by someone who has never been to seminary, does not know Hebrew or Greek and its relevance to the point at issue here, and has never read an academic NT Introduction that lays out the proof that Mark is a primary source for borh Matthew and Luke.

 

[Berserk]

Jesus is pointing out that the man, unknowlingly, is acknowledging that Jesus is God.

Your claim would require a focus on Jesus' status in Mark 10:17ff, and there is none. Jesus claims to be "the Son of God," the messianic descendent of David based on 2 Samuel 7:14, but He never actually claims to be God.
So He is implicitly denying both that He is "good" and that He is "God." You ducked my related question, why does Jesus feel the need for John's baptism of repentance "to fulfill all righteousness?" Jesus believes that all human goodness derives from God the Father's goodness.

 

[Diamond72]

A crude pontification by someone who has never been to seminary, does not know Hebrew or Greek and its relevance to the point at issue here, and has never read an academic NT Introduction that lays out the proof that Mark is a primary source for borh Matthew and Luke.

I have over two years in the Bible College. I have studied a lot of Hebrew and Greek. So you pretty much do not have a leg to stand on. Not that it really matters, if you want to waste your time on nonsense like this, then go right ahead and enjoy yourself.

 

[Diamond72]

why does Jesus feel the need for John's baptism of repentance "to fulfill all righteousness?"

There are many reasons. Jesus' baptism was a demonstration of His identification with humanity. By being baptized, Jesus aligned Himself with the human experience, showing solidarity with those He came to save. He stood among sinners, even though He Himself was sinless.

The baptism prepared Jesus for His public ministry, empowering Him through the anointing of the Holy Spirit. After His baptism, the Holy Spirit descended upon Him like a dove, symbolizing the beginning of His public teaching, healing, and miracle-working ministry

 

[Berserk]

There are many reasons. Jesus' baptism was a demonstration of His identification with humanity. By being baptized, Jesus aligned Himself with the human experience, showing solidarity with those He came to save. He stood among sinners, even though He Himself was sinless.

Your reply ducks 2 facts: (1) Nowhere do the Gospels say that Jesus was baptized for repentance just to set a good example. (2) Jesus was baptized specifically "to fulfill all righteousness." (3) Being fully human, Jesus had to mature and learn by trial and error just like all of us (Hebrews 4:15; 5:8; Luke 2:45-52).

 

[Diamond72]

Nowhere do the Gospels say that Jesus was baptized for repentance just to set a good example

Do you just make this stuff up as you go along?

 

[Berserk]

Do you just make this stuff up as you go along?

I express the standard commonsensical view of Bible scholars. Kindly season your penchant for bluster with a modicum of intellectual rigor and actually read the relevant texts cited.

 

[Clare73]

Your claim would require a focus on Jesus' status in Mark 10:17ff, and there is none.

Jesus often spoke indirectly, to avoid being killed before his appointed time.

Jesus claims to be "the Son of God," the messianic descendent of David based on 2 Samuel 7:14, but He never actually claims to be God.

The implications of his statements; e.g., being the Son of God, or "before Abraham was, I AM," were that he was God, and the Jews understood exactly what he was saying (Mk 2:3-7, Jn 6:41-42, 10:30-33, 5:18 8:58-59).

The apostles claimed that he was God (Jn 1:1, 14, and Mt 3:3, Ro 10:9, 13, Heb 1:6, Lk 1:67-68, 76, where he is YHWH).

So He is implicitly denying both that He is "good" and that He is "God." You ducked my related question, why does Jesus feel the need for John's baptism of repentance "to fulfill all righteousness?" Jesus believes that all human goodness derives from God the Father's goodness.

He came to fulfill all that was prophesied of the Messiah and to obey all God's laws so that he could meet the qualification of a perfect sacrifice without defect.