• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

  • Christian Forums is looking to bring on new moderators to the CF Staff Team! If you have been an active member of CF for at least three months with 200 posts during that time, you're eligible to apply! This is a great way to give back to CF and keep the forums running smoothly! If you're interested, you can submit your application here!

Verses used to support amillennialism

Interplanner

Newbie
Aug 5, 2012
11,882
113
near Olympic National Park
✟12,847.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Godenver,
1st define some terms. Amill means there isn't one at all; compare atheism (there is no God). But we know from our conversations with others that the key is the kind of reign of Christ, and the kind of "Israel" he's talking about. The question is not if there is one vs not one at all.

As for the verse, the kingdom of God came, because several of those lived and saw it. Acts 2 says Christ was enthroned Lord and Christ. Eph 1 echoes this. But if you were thinking strictly literal and 'perfect', you would have trouble with that. You would not be assessing things by faith in Christ's word but by tonights news. This has to be sorted out. Some decided that the reign has to be a perfect time unit of # of years and conditions, and since it is not now, it is future.

But that is extremely confusing about important established theological themes that have come to fulfillment in Christ and which speak about OT passages. And, after all, Acts 2 says he was enthroned.
 
Upvote 0
O

Old Timer

Guest
Amillennialism is the result of men taking revelation 20 from its context of being the things which shall be hereafter, and applying them to either the past or the here and now.. ie, the present.

If men would simply allow and believe the scriptures to say what they say (like for example, that these are the things which shall be hereafter), then there would not be the false doctrine of amillennialism.

To some this is not possible though, they must consider the things which shall be to be the things which are.. or already have been.. anything but what they actually and truly are.. The things which shall be hereafter.
 
Upvote 0

Interplanner

Newbie
Aug 5, 2012
11,882
113
near Olympic National Park
✟12,847.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Acts 2 and Eph 1 say Christ is enthroned now, so yes people need to take the Scripture as being about what they are about.

It is this understanding, during the Reformation, that led to the lyrics of Handel's MESSIAH. As you know the Hallelujah Chorus ('the kingdom of this world has become the kingdom of our God and of his Christ') is not at the end of time, but after Christ's resurrection.

Don't base doctrines on the Rev. They must be based on ordinary language elsewhere in the apostles teaching.
 
Upvote 0

shturt678s

Regular Member
Dec 11, 2013
2,733
118
✟18,297.00
Faith
Lutheran
Marital Status
Single
Could you please post verses/texts of the Bible which teaches 'amillennialism'?

Is Mark 9:1 one of them?

1 And he said to them, "Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power."

Only a head's up from an Amill., ie, Mk.9:1, "in power" = power to destroy with judgment, eg, destruction of Jersualem and the expulsion of the Jews from Palestine.

This marked the beginning of the Amill.'s "42 months".

The Cross marked the beginning of the Amill.'s "1,000 years".

Old Jack's opinion
 
Upvote 0
B

Bible2

Guest
godenver1 said in post 1:

Could you please post verses/texts of the Bible which teaches 'amillennialism'?

There aren't any, because the millennium will begin after Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21), when he will reign physically on the earth with the physically resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 2, Psalms 66:3-4). During the millennium, Jesus will place obedient Christians over cities (Luke 19:17-19), and nations (Revelation 2:26-29), and political divisions within nations (Matthew 19:28, Luke 22:30), while Jesus will be King of Kings (Revelation 19:16) over the entire earth (Zechariah 14:9, Psalms 72:8-11), reigning in the earthly Jerusalem (Micah 4:1-8,13, Zechariah 14:8-21).

Isaiah 19 and Isaiah 11:6-16 are also examples of millennial scriptures.

godenver1 said in post 1:

Is Mark 9:1 one of them?

1 And he said to them, "Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power."

No, for Mark 9:1, like Matthew 16:28 and Luke 9:27, was fulfilled at the subsequent transfiguration (Matthew 16:28 to 17:9, Luke 9:27-36, Mark 9:1-9; 2 Peter 1:16-18).

That is, just as the "power", "coming", and "majesty" in 2 Peter 1:16 refer to the transfiguration in 2 Peter 1:17-18, so the "power", "coming", and "kingdom" in Mark 9:1, Matthew 16:28, and Luke 9:27 refer to the subsequent transfiguration in Mark 9:2-9, Matthew 17:1-9, and Luke 9:28-36.

The transfiguration was a coming of the kingdom of God with power (Mark 9:1-9, Luke 9:27-36) in the same sense that Jesus' previous and subsequent casting out of devils was a coming of the kingdom of God with power (Matthew 12:28, Luke 11:20). That is, such events showed that God's power had come to the earth in the person of Jesus Christ.
 
Upvote 0
B

Bible2

Guest
Old Timer said in post 3:

Amillennialism is the result of men taking revelation 20 from its context of being the things which shall be hereafter, and applying them to either the past or the here and now.. ie, the present.

That's right (Revelation 4:1b).

Also, there are at least 8 scriptural reasons to read the 1,000 years of Revelation 20:2-6 as not beginning until after Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming in Revelation 19:7-21.

First, this is in accord with how the rest of Revelation chapters 6 to 22 are in chronological order, insofar as the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will begin with the events of the 2nd through 6th seals, occurring in the order shown in Revelation 6:3-14. After the events of the 6th seal, Revelation 7 will occur. Then the 7th seal will be unsealed and out of it will come the tribulation's 7 trumpets (Revelation 8:1-6). Then the events of the first 6 trumpets in Revelation 8:7 to Revelation 9:21 will occur in the order shown there. Then Revelation 10 will occur. Then the literal 3.5 years of the Antichrist's worldwide reign will occur, which time period is shown from 4 different angles in Revelation chapters 11 to 14 (Revelation 11:2b-3, Revelation 12:6,14, Revelation 13:5,7, Revelation 14:9-13).

Then the 7th trumpet will sound, announcing the legal end of the Antichrist's reign (Revelation 11:15). Out of the 7th trumpet's heavenly-temple opening will come the 7 plagues of the 7 vials (Revelation 11:19, Revelation 15:5 to 16:1), the tribulation's final stage. Then the events of the 7 vials will occur in the order shown in Revelation 16. Jesus will return right after the 7th vial (Revelation 16:17,19, Revelation 19:2-21), and he will marry the church at that time (Revelation 19:7). Then he will defeat the world's armies (Revelation 19:11 to 20:3) and reign on the earth with the physically resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29; 1 Corinthians 15:51-53). Then the events of Revelation 20:7 to Revelation 22:5 will occur in the order shown there.

-

Second, the 1,000 years in Revelation 20:2-6 is when Satan will be literally bound with a chain, and cast into and locked within the literal bottomless pit, while currently he is walking about freely on the earth seeking whom he may devour (1 Peter 5:8). So the 1,000 years can't have started yet. But their beginning after Jesus' 2nd coming makes perfect sense (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).

Third, during the 1,000 years, Satan won't be able to deceive the world (Revelation 20:3), while currently he is able to deceive the world (2 Corinthians 4:4; 2 Corinthians 11:3,14,15; 2 Thessalonians 2:9-10, Revelation 12:9, Revelation 13:14, Revelation 19:20, Revelation 20:10). So the 1,000 years can't have started yet.

Fourth, the defeat of Satan in Revelation 20:1-3 is in chronological accord with the immediately preceding defeat of the Antichrist (the individual man aspect of the beast), and the False Prophet, and the world's armies, at Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:19-21). Indeed, there is no chapter break between Revelation 19 and Revelation 20 in the original Greek manuscripts, so that Revelation 19:19 to 20:3 can be taken together as a unit, showing how every power of evil will be defeated at Jesus' 2nd coming.

Fifth, reading Revelation 20:4-6 as Jesus and the bodily resurrected church reigning first on the present (not the new) earth after his 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6) matches Jesus reigning first on the present (not the new) earth after his 2nd coming in Zechariah 14:3-21. For Zechariah 14:8-21 can't be referring to the new earth, because it refers to a temple building in Jerusalem (Zechariah 14:20-21), while there will be no temple building in New Jerusalem on the new earth (Revelation 21:22). Also, Zechariah 14:8-21 can't be referring to the new earth because it refers to surviving, unsaved people from the present earth being forced to come up to worship the returned Jesus in Jerusalem during the millennium (Zechariah 14:16-19), while by the time of the new earth, all the unsaved people from the present earth will have already been cast into the lake of fire (Revelation 20:15 to 21:8).

Sixth, reading the 1st resurrection in Revelation 20:4-6 as the physical resurrection of the church at Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6) matches other verses which show that the physical resurrection of the church will occur at the 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-54; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16).

Seventh, reading the 1st resurrection in Revelation 20:4-6 as the physical resurrection of the church at Jesus' 2nd coming is in line with Revelation 20:5, which must refer in its entirety to only physical resurrection. For not every dead person is going to be figuratively resurrected in the sense of becoming saved (Revelation 20:15). And Revelation 20:5 means that the rest of the dead (i.e. all the non-church dead of all times) will be resurrected in the same manner that the church will be resurrected in Revelation 20:4-6, but the rest of the dead won't be resurrected until sometime after the 1,000 years.

Eighth, reading the 1st resurrection in Revelation 20:4-6 as the physical resurrection of the church at Jesus' 2nd coming is in line with Revelation 20:4, which shows that the people in the 1st resurrection will include those in the church who will have been beheaded by the Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of the beast) for not worshipping him or his image, or receiving his mark on their hand or forehead. This refers back to the details of Revelation 13:4-18, which have never been fulfilled. So the 1st resurrection can't have happened yet. But its occurring at Jesus' 2nd coming, when he will defeat the Antichrist, makes perfect sense (Revelation 19:20 to 20:6; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-9).
 
Upvote 0
B

Bible2

Guest
Interplanner said in post 5:

Acts 2 and Eph 1 say Christ is enthroned now . . .

Note that Jesus isn't yet exercising his omnipotence (of Matthew 28:18, for example) to the extent of physically subjugating the kings of the earth, like he will do during the millennium (Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Micah 4:1-4, Zechariah 14:9-21).

-

As God the Word, Jesus was the Creator of everything in heaven and earth (Colossians 1:16-18, John 1:1,3). And in the 1st century AD, he became a flesh and bones human being (John 1:14; 2 John 1:7), so he could die on the Cross for our sins and rise physically from the dead on the 3rd day (Hebrews 2:16-17; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) and become our eternally-human high priest/mediator (Hebrews 7:24-26; 1 Timothy 2:5).

After his resurrection into immortality in his fully-human flesh and bones body (Luke 24:39), Jesus the man was given ultimate spiritual authority over heaven and earth (Matthew 28:18). He ascended bodily into heaven (Acts 1:9-10), and is now there ruling spiritually over everything (1 Peter 3:22, Ephesians 1:20-23, Colossians 2:10,15, Philippians 2:9).

But he won't take ultimate, de facto, physical authority over the earth until his 2nd coming, when, still as a flesh and bones human being (Zechariah 13:6, Zechariah 12:10-14), he will descend from heaven (Revelation 19:11-21, Zechariah 14:3-4, Acts 1:11-12) to reign on the earth (Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:9-21) with a rod of iron with the physically resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 2, Psalms 66:3-4, Micah 4:1-4, Luke 1:32, Isaiah 9:6-7).

After his 1,000-year reign and subsequent events (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39), Jesus will resurrect and judge everyone who wasn't resurrected at his 2nd coming (Revelation 20:11-15). Everyone who has ever lived will have to bow down before him and admit that he is Lord of everything (Philippians 2:10-11, Acts 10:36).

Interplanner said in post 5:

It is this understanding, during the Reformation, that led to the lyrics of Handel's MESSIAH. As you know the Hallelujah Chorus ('the kingdom of this world has become the kingdom of our God and of his Christ') is not at the end of time, but after Christ's resurrection.

Regarding the 7th trumpet of the future tribulation (Revelation 11:15-19), note that it doesn't refer to Jesus' resurrection, or (as is sometimes claimed) to Jesus' future, 2nd coming. Instead, Revelation 11:15 refers to the future point in time (Revelation 4:1b) when Jesus will take ultimate, legal, physical authority over the earth, away from Satan (cf. Luke 4:5-7) and Satan's fallen angels (Ephesians 6:12), and away from the Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of Revelation's "beast") (Revelation 13:4-18, cf. Revelation 12:9) and the Antichrist's 10 kings (Revelation 17:12-13). It won't be until a little later that Jesus will take de facto, physical control of the earth at his 2nd coming and during the subsequent millennium (Revelation 19:11 to 20:6).

Jesus' 2nd coming won't (as is sometimes claimed) occur immediately after the sounding of the tribulation's 7th trumpet and the declaration of the legal replacement of the Antichrist's future, literal 3.5 year worldwide reign (Revelation 13:5-18, Revelation 12:6,14) with Jesus' reign (Revelation 11:15). For a "time" (Revelation 11:18) can last awhile (cf. Revelation 12:14). It is like if someone said: "It is time to sell this house"; this doesn't mean that it will get sold immediately. The only part of Revelation 11:18 which will happen immediately after the 7th trumpet sounds is "thy wrath is come". For the plagues of the vials (Revelation 16), the tribulation's final stage, will come out of the 7th trumpet's heavenly-temple opening (Revelation 11:19, Revelation 15:5 to 16:1).

So the 7th trumpet (Revelation 11:15-19), even though it will be the last trumpet to sound during the tribulation, won't be the church's-resurrection "last trump" of 1 Corinthians 15:52. The latter won't sound until after the tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24, at Jesus' 2nd coming (Matthew 24:29-31; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), which won't occur until Revelation 19, and which is when the church will be physically resurrected (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-54; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16).

Before the 2nd coming, the tribulation's final, Revelation 16 stage could last for 75 days. For the 1st vial in Revelation 16 could be poured out immediately after the 1,260 days of the Antichrist's worldwide reign, which 1,260 days could begin when the abomination of desolation (possibly a standing, android image of the Antichrist) is set up in the holy place (the inner sanctum) of a 3rd Jewish temple in Jerusalem (Matthew 24:15, Daniel 11:31,36). And Jesus could return on the 1,335th day after the setting up of the abomination of desolation (Daniel 12:11-12, Revelation 16:15). An analogy for the possible 75-day vials-delay between Jesus taking legal possession of the earth (Revelation 11:15) and his return to take de facto, physical possession of it (Revelation chapters 19-20) would be someone in New York legally inheriting a house in California, 75 days before he moves there to live in that house.

At Jesus' 2nd coming, he will physically resurrect and judge only the church (1 Corinthians 15:21-23; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Psalms 50:3-6, cf. Mark 13:27), and then he will marry the obedient part of the church (Revelation 19:7-8, Matthew 25:1-12). Then Revelation 19:11-21 will occur. So both the resurrection and the rewarding of the church spoken of in Revelation 11:18, as well as the destroying of the destroyers of the earth spoken of in Revelation 11:18, could occur 75 days after the 7th trumpet's sounding. And because a "time" can last awhile (cf. Revelation 12:14), this would still be well within the "time" referred to in Revelation 11:18.

Everyone not physically resurrected and judged at Jesus' 2nd coming won't be physically resurrected and judged until Revelation 20:11-15, which won't occur until sometime after the returned Jesus and the physically resurrected church have reigned on the earth for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29). Both resurrections and judgments can still occur within Revelation 11:18's "time". For the original Greek word (kairos: G2540) translated there as "time" can refer to even quite a long period. For example, the same Greek word is used in 2 Corinthians 6:2 to refer to the "time" of people getting saved, which has been going on for thousands of years.

Interplanner said in post 5:

Don't base doctrines on the Rev. They must be based on ordinary language elsewhere in the apostles teaching.

Note that Revelation is almost entirely ordinary language, in the sense of literal language. For Revelation is unsealed (Revelation 22:10), meaning that it shouldn't be difficult for saved people of any time to understand it if they simply read it as it is written: chronologically and almost-entirely literally. The few parts of it that are symbolic are almost always explained afterward (e.g. Revelation 1:20, Revelation 17:9-12). And Revelation's few symbols not explained afterward (e.g. Revelation 13:2) are usually explained elsewhere in the Bible (e.g. Daniel 7:4-7,17).

Just as Jesus' 2nd coming in Revelation 19:7 to 20:3 will be fulfilled almost entirely literally, so the events of the preceding tribulation in Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will be fulfilled almost entirely literally. Also, the millennium in Revelation 20 will be literal, and will begin after Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21), when he will reign on the earth with the physically resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11). After that, the events of Revelation 20:7 to 22:5 will occur literally.
 
Upvote 0

shturt678s

Regular Member
Dec 11, 2013
2,733
118
✟18,297.00
Faith
Lutheran
Marital Status
Single
There aren't any, because the millennium will begin after Jesus' 2nd coming

Amill.'s "millennium" already began at the precious CROSS! In light of Lk.11:21, 22 only for openers. Christ has already been reigning and will continue to do so.

(Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21), when he will reign physically on the earth with the physically resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 2, Psalms 66:3-4). During the millennium, Jesus will place obedient Christians over cities (Luke 19:17-19), and nations (Revelation 2:26-29), and political divisions within nations (Matthew 19:28, Luke 22:30), while Jesus will be King of Kings (Revelation 19:16) over the entire earth (Zechariah 14:9, Psalms 72:8-11), reigning in the earthly Jerusalem (Micah 4:1-8,13, Zechariah 14:8-21).

Isaiah 19 and Isaiah 11:6-16 are also examples of millennial scriptures.



No, for Mark 9:1, like Matthew 16:28 and Luke 9:27, was fulfilled at the subsequent transfiguration (Matthew 16:28 to 17:9, Luke 9:27-36, Mark 9:1-9; 2 Peter 1:16-18).

That is, just as the "power", "coming", and "majesty" in 2 Peter 1:16 refer to the transfiguration in 2 Peter 1:17-18, so the "power", "coming", and "kingdom" in Mark 9:1, Matthew 16:28, and Luke 9:27 refer to the subsequent transfiguration in Mark 9:2-9, Matthew 17:1-9, and Luke 9:28-36.

The transfiguration was a coming of the kingdom of God with power (Mark 9:1-9, Luke 9:27-36) in the same sense that Jesus' previous and subsequent casting out of devils was a coming of the kingdom of God with power (Matthew 12:28, Luke 11:20). That is, such events showed that God's power had come to the earth in the person of Jesus Christ.

Old Jack's opinion
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0
B

Bible2

Guest
shturt678s said in post 10:

Amill.'s "millennium" already began at the precious CROSS! In light of Lk.11:21, 22 only for openers.

Note that in Luke 11:21-22, as in Matthew 12:25-29, the "strong man" isn't Satan himself, but refers to "strong man" individual demons/unclean spirits which possess individual people. Compare the strength of the individual demon in the individual man in Acts 19:13-16, who had the strength to overpower 7 men. Satan himself remains unbound, walking about freely on the earth (1 Peter 5:8). He won't be bound and locked down in the bottomless pit, by an angel, until Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3).

Similarly, John 12:31b means that because of what Jesus did at his first coming (Hebrews 2:14), Satan "shall", in our future, first be cast out of heaven permanently after losing a mid-tribulation war in heaven (Revelation 12:7-17). Then, later, at Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3), Satan will be bound and cast down beneath the earth's surface, locked within the literal bottomless pit, for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:2-3). Then, after the 1,000 years and the subsequent defeat of the Gog/Magog rebellion (Revelation 20:7-9), Satan will be cast into the lake of fire to remain there forever (Revelation 20:10). The lake of fire will be outside New Jerusalem (Revelation 22:15, Revelation 21:8) on the new earth (Revelation 21:1-8).

Similarly, in Colossians 2:15, the original Greek word (apekduomai: G0554) translated as "spoiled" doesn't mean that Satan has been "disarmed", or "bound". For he still employs weapons (Ephesians 6:16), and he is still walking about freely on the earth seeking whom he may devour (1 Peter 5:8).

Colossians 2:15, like the similar Hebrews 2:14-15 and 1 John 3:8b, makes no reference to the "binding" of Satan with a chain and his being "shut up", i.e. enclosed within, the literal bottomless pit by an angel (Revelation 20:1-3). For this won't occur until Jesus' never-fulfilled 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3).

In Hebrews 2:14, the original Greek word (katargeo: G2673) translated as "destroy" can simply mean "to make of none effect" (Romans 4:14b). Hebrews 2:14 means that Jesus' death made Satan's power of none effect spiritually over obedient Christians. Similarly, in 1 John 3:8, the original Greek word (luo: G3089) translated as "destroy" can simply mean "to break" (Ephesians 2:14). 1 John 3:8 means that Jesus came to break Satan's workings from having any spiritual effect over obedient Christians.

Colossians 2:15, Hebrews 2:14-15, and 1 John 3:8b don't contradict that Satan can still wield his power physically over even obedient Christians, even to the point of killing them (Revelation 2:10, Revelation 12:9,17, Revelation 13:4-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 20:4-6). Similarly, Colossians 2:15, Hebrews 2:14-15 and 1 John 3:8b don't contradict that Satan can still wield his deceiving spiritual power over both disobedient Christians and non-Christians (2 Corinthians 4:4; 2 Corinthians 11:3,14,15; 2 Thessalonians 2:9-10, Revelation 12:9, Revelation 13:14, Revelation 19:20, Revelation 20:10), while during the future millennium, Satan won't be able to deceive anyone (Revelation 20:3).
 
Upvote 0

shturt678s

Regular Member
Dec 11, 2013
2,733
118
✟18,297.00
Faith
Lutheran
Marital Status
Single
Note that in Luke 11:21-22, as in Matthew 12:25-29, the "strong man" isn't Satan himself, but refers to "strong man" individual demons/unclean spirits which possess individual people.

Only an opinionate head's up, Lk.11:21, 22 Here we have another of Jesus syllogisms that underlies the illustration in this passage, ie, Its application to Jesus and Satan is obvious.

Major premise: Only complete victory allows plundering at will. Minor premise: Jesus plunders Satan at will.
Conclusion: Jesus achieved complete victory over Satan at the Cross.

Compare the strength of the individual demon in the individual man in Acts 19:13-16, who had the strength to overpower 7 men. Satan himself remains unbound, walking about freely on the earth (1 Peter 5:8). He won't be bound and locked down in the bottomless pit, by an angel, until Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3).

Similarly, John 12:31b means that because of what Jesus did at his first coming (Hebrews 2:14), Satan "shall", in our future, first be cast out of heaven permanently after losing a mid-tribulation war in heaven (Revelation 12:7-17). Then, later, at Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3), Satan will be bound and cast down beneath the earth's surface, locked within the literal bottomless pit, for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:2-3). Then, after the 1,000 years and the subsequent defeat of the Gog/Magog rebellion (Revelation 20:7-9), Satan will be cast into the lake of fire to remain there forever (Revelation 20:10). The lake of fire will be outside New Jerusalem (Revelation 22:15, Revelation 21:8) on the new earth (Revelation 21:1-8).

Similarly, in Colossians 2:15, the original Greek word (apekduomai: G0554) translated as "spoiled" doesn't mean that Satan has been "disarmed", or "bound". For he still employs weapons (Ephesians 6:16), and he is still walking about freely on the earth seeking whom he may devour (1 Peter 5:8).

Colossians 2:15, like the similar Hebrews 2:14-15 and 1 John 3:8b, makes no reference to the "binding" of Satan with a chain and his being "shut up", i.e. enclosed within, the literal bottomless pit by an angel (Revelation 20:1-3). For this won't occur until Jesus' never-fulfilled 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3).

In Hebrews 2:14, the original Greek word (katargeo: G2673) translated as "destroy" can simply mean "to make of none effect" (Romans 4:14b). Hebrews 2:14 means that Jesus' death made Satan's power of none effect spiritually over obedient Christians. Similarly, in 1 John 3:8, the original Greek word (luo: G3089) translated as "destroy" can simply mean "to break" (Ephesians 2:14). 1 John 3:8 means that Jesus came to break Satan's workings from having any spiritual effect over obedient Christians.

Colossians 2:15, Hebrews 2:14-15, and 1 John 3:8b don't contradict that Satan can still wield his power physically over even obedient Christians, even to the point of killing them (Revelation 2:10, Revelation 12:9,17, Revelation 13:4-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 20:4-6). Similarly, Colossians 2:15, Hebrews 2:14-15 and 1 John 3:8b don't contradict that Satan can still wield his deceiving spiritual power over both disobedient Christians and non-Christians (2 Corinthians 4:4; 2 Corinthians 11:3,14,15; 2 Thessalonians 2:9-10, Revelation 12:9, Revelation 13:14, Revelation 19:20, Revelation 20:10), while during the future millennium, Satan won't be able to deceive anyone (Revelation 20:3).

Old Jack's opinion
 
Upvote 0