- Dec 13, 2015
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I'm a tad confused about the connections between Matthew 7:21-23 and John 6:37-40. In Matthew 7:21 Jesus says that only those who do the will of God the Father will actually enter heaven. Well, doesn't Jesus state what the will of God the Father is in John 6:38-39? I've read a lot of articles of the opinions on the world's top theologians and what several Christians think on what possibly the will of God could be. Here's a clue, it's never John 6:37-40. It's always based on not being stuck in your own works or something to that effect. It's never what Christ said the will of God the Father is. I don't even see someone who believes in or teaches reformed theology bring up John 6:37-40 to explain what Christ was talking about. Why? Doesn't Christ directly state what the Will of the Father is in verses 6:38-39?
Isn't doing the will of the Father exactly what Jesus said in those four wonderful verses that support preserverence of the saints more out of virtually any other verses in the bible? Yes, even more than John 10:27-30. They state more than just giving someone eternal life and more than the elect being secure in the hands of God. They state that all of God's sheep will come to Christ and of those who do come to Christ, he will not lose ONE of them. It states that Salvation is completely 100% a work of God. So those doing the will of God are the multitude that God chose to save before time even began. Why am I seemingly the only one that connects these two sets of verses together? It's seems quite obvious to me because Christ uses the words "I will only do the will of the Father not my own will and the will of my father is that I lose none but raise it all up on the last day." Sounds straightforward to me. What am I missing?
Isn't doing the will of the Father exactly what Jesus said in those four wonderful verses that support preserverence of the saints more out of virtually any other verses in the bible? Yes, even more than John 10:27-30. They state more than just giving someone eternal life and more than the elect being secure in the hands of God. They state that all of God's sheep will come to Christ and of those who do come to Christ, he will not lose ONE of them. It states that Salvation is completely 100% a work of God. So those doing the will of God are the multitude that God chose to save before time even began. Why am I seemingly the only one that connects these two sets of verses together? It's seems quite obvious to me because Christ uses the words "I will only do the will of the Father not my own will and the will of my father is that I lose none but raise it all up on the last day." Sounds straightforward to me. What am I missing?