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King James Was Gay?

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d0c markus

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King James Was Gay?

My Church history book briefly mentioned it. Thats kinda strange, how do they know this?

The Story of Christianity: The Reformation to the Present Day said:
"James's personal character did little to increase his prestige. He was a homosexual..."
 
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Miss Shelby

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d0c markus said:
King James Was Gay?

My Church history book briefly mentioned it. Thats kinda strange, how do they know this?
I have heard this, but I have no verifiable proof. My inclination is to believe it though because if memory serves it was an accurate source, however I cannot produce it right now.

Michelle
 
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AVBunyan

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d0c markus said:
King James Was Gay?
What difference does it make -

1. King James I wasn't on the translating committee anyway - had nothing to do with the translation of the 1611 AV except he allowed the transaltion to take place and that was only because God directed it so - Eph. 1:11.

2. Peter wrote his epistles under Nero.

Anything to take away from the authority of the King James Bible - same old party line.

d0c markus - I know you were just quoting what a book said so please don't take the above as directed to you personally.

Have a nice day :wave:
 
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d0c markus

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Later, James fell in love with a poor young Scotsman named Robert Carr. "The king leans on his [Carr's] arm, pinches his cheeks, smooths his ruffled garment, and when he looks upon Carr, directs his speech to others." (Thomas Howard, Earl of Suffolk, in a letter, 1611)

Carr eventually ended the relationship after which the king expressed his dissatisfaction in a letter to Carr, "I leave out of this reckoning your long creeping back and withdrawing yourself from lying in my chamber, notwithstanding my many hundred times earnest soliciting you to the contrary...Remember that (since I am king) all your being, except your breathing and soul, is from me." (See The Letters of King James I & VI, ed., G. P. V. Akrigg, Univ. of Calif. Press, 1984. Also see Royal Family, Royal Lovers: King James of England and Scotland, David M. Bergeron, Univ. of Missouri Press, 1991)
___________________________________

What difference does it make -

1. King James I wasn't on the translating committee anyway - had nothing to do with the translation of the 1611 AV except he allowed the transaltion to take place and that was only because God directed it so - Eph. 1:11.

2. Peter wrote his epistles under Nero.

Anything to take away from the authority of the King James Bible - same old party line.

d0c markus - I know you were just quoting what a book said so please don't take the above as directed to you personally.
I am just curious, I never heard this before. You one of those KJV only guys?
 
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TheScottsMen

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I just got done with my Church History 2 class and also came into the knowledge of King James "special friends". If you ever have the chance to visit England and James very large Tomb you will also notice his "friends" tomb as pointed out by the director.
 
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CJ.23

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Are we on James I of England, James VI of Scotland? Yes, almost certainly. He had a relationship with George Villiers, Duke of Buckingham, who was assasinated as I recall by John Felton in Plymouth on May 1st 1628. Er, any reason why this matters? He was also obsessed with witchcraft and believed witches were plotting to kill him. It has no bearing on the KJV however, as despite it's name - we tend to call it the Authorised Version anyway - he was just the ruling monarch when the Church ordered the translation. Anyway, it's a bit late now to do much about who he may or may not have liked to share his bed with... :) Why does it matter? (again, incredulous!)

cj x
 
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CJ.23

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If you really want to know more about him, his mother was Mary Queen of Scots executed by Elizabeth I for plotting a Catholic revolt and exiled from Scotland for similar. His son was Charles I, beheaded after the English Civil War, where his supposed Catholic sympathies were a major part and whose wife and friends were staunch Catholics. His grandson was James II, exiled in 1688 from England for his Catholic sympathies, and replaced by William of Orange in what was effectively a Protestant take over,as I recall.

I would have thought this would merit more comment. The poor bloke was pretty unlucky, or at least his family were! (Not in being catholic, in being beheaded and exiled!)

cj x
 
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ShetlandRose

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If I am remembering my history correctly (strictly from memory), the 1611 Bible was officially named the Authorized Version of the English Bible. There was a great debate at the time whether to make the Geneva Bible the authorized version of England or create a better translation. King James thought the idea of a new translation lovely, if it would bear his name [somewhere], since it appealed to his vanity. He allowed committees of the finest Biblical scholars of the times to complete this new English translation, creating a masterpiece. My grandmother's Bible of 1902 only reads "Authorized Version." Another Bible I have published during World War II reads "Authorized (King James) Version." This makes me suspect the "King James" label was tagged early to mid 20th century. Does anyone know?

Don't know anything about James' other personal preferences.

ShetlandRose :angel:
 
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d0c markus

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hotmetal said:
Just because King James was the first, doesnt mean it was the most accuraet... word for word i believe the New American Stand Version is the most accurate, but not very readable
Hmm.. I like The NASB, i also read this concerning the KJV

Although the title page of The King James Bible boasted that it was "newly translated out of the original tongues," the work was actually a revision of The Bishop's Bible of 1568, which was a revision of The Great Bible of 1539, which was itself based on three previous English translations from the early 1500s. So, the men who produced the King James Bible not only inherited some of the errors made by previous English translators, but invented some of their own.
true, yes, no?
 
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Polycarp1

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d0c markus said:
Same Person No? Wasnt England and Scotland Unified at this time?
Same person, yes. Unified -- depends on what you mean by the word. They were two separate kingdoms with their own separate Parliaments and laws, sharing a single monarch (who, by the way, tended to favor England over Scotland). They were united under his great-granddaughter Anne in 1707, 104 years after he took the English throne (he'd been King of Scots for a long but debatable period before that).

With regard to the OP, it's one of those things that you read a lot of innuendo into. James was definitely attracted to a series of handsome young courtiers, and was married and fathered (IIRC two) children. His behavior towards his favorites was considered juicy gossip, and led to a lot of innuendos about his sex life. There's no concrete proof that he was a practicing homosexual -- but a lot of circumstantial evidence that strongly suggests it.
 
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