Isaiah 28:9 Whom shall He teach knowledge, and make to understand doctrine?

[Mr. M]

Isaiah 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to these people.

Why does Paul quote this verse here?
1 Corinthians 14:21 In the law it is written:
With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,
says the Lord.

How is this relevant for today?
Or perhaps it is better to ask,
how is 1 Co 14 so easily dismissed?

Notice that he states this is from the law,
even as the Lord quotes the Psalms:
John 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law,
‘I said, “You are gods” .

This confirms by the Spirit that nomos in the Greek,
which equals Torah in the OT, means instruction,
as it comes from the Hebrew yarah=teach, instruct.

2 Timothy 3:
16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof,
for correction, for instruction in righteousness,
17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.

Therefore, those who truly desire to serve the Lord in Spirit and Truth, must be
taught by Him in the "putting off of the old man and putting on the new;
created according to God, in true holiness and righteousness". Eph. 4:20-24.

Isaiah 28 is a powerful metaphor in comprehending the spiritual principles of
the New Covenant in Christ, under the Anointing of the Holy Spirit.


9 Whom shall He teach knowledge?
and whom shall He make to understand doctrine?
them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.

Hebrews 5:
12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers,
you need someone to teach you again the first principles of the oracles of God;
and you have come to need milk and not solid food.
13 For everyone who partakes only of milk is unskilled in the word of righteousness, for he is a babe.
14 But solid food belongs to those who are of full age, that is, those who by reason of use
have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil.

Isaiah 28:13 But the word of the Lord was to them,
Precept upon precept, precept upon precept,
Line upon line, line upon line,
Here a little, there a little,
That they might go and fall backward, and be broken
And snared and caught.

 

[RandyPNW]

Isaiah 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to these people.

Why does Paul quote this verse here?
1 Corinthians 14:21 In the law it is written:
With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,
says the Lord.

I've asked the same question. My thought is that Isa 28 was speaking of God's judgment upon Israel for her foolishness by the hands of those who were ignorant of God's word. Israel should've known better than the nations about the ways of the Lord. But God uses pagans to punish those who were irresponsible with His knowledge.

Paul quotes it because for all Israel should've heard and understood God's word, it had become no better than the babbling of a pagan foreigner. And so, God turned them over to foreign-speaking pagans.

The gift of tongues would similarly not be received by Jews who did not believe, as well as by Gentiles who did not believe. It was a message being sent by God, through His people, to those who would reject His word. It was not intended for them to understand. It is an indication that people harden their hearts to God's word, rendering them incapable of understanding His messages.

And so, parables and "tongues" are given to those who refuse to understand, including religious people who should know better but harden their hearts. I really don't know why else God would give foreign tongues to His people unless it is simply to let them operate in a spiritual vein, regardless of whether unbelievers wish to understand?

For those who are believing, tongues can be interpreted for them...

1 Cor 14.27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, two—or at the most three—should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret. 28 If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet in the church and speak to himself and to God.

 

[HopeSings]

That they might go and fall backward, and be broken
And snared and caught.

Interesting. I think that i see the spirit birth in Isaiah chapter 66 as being backwards. The birth pains are felt after you're reborn. It's backwards. The birth pain is seen in Romans chapter 8.

 

[Mr. M]

9 Whom shall He teach knowledge?
and whom shall He make to understand doctrine?
them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.

Hebrews 5:
12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers,
you need someone to teach you again the first principles of the oracles of God;
and you have come to need milk and not solid food.
13 For everyone who partakes only of milk is unskilled in the word of righteousness, for he is a babe.
14 But solid food belongs to those who are of full age, that is, those who by reason of use
have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil.

The question proposed in the title of the OP is of course,
immediately answered by the verse cited by way of a metaphor.
The question then becomes, what does this mean, to be:
"weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts"?
The quotation from Hebrews 5 is cited because the most
immediate answer is to say a mature Christian
leaving to debate what constitutes "a mature Christian"?

The answer to the question proposed in Isaiah is answered
by David in the Psalms:
131:
1 Lord, my heart is not haughty,
Nor my eyes lofty.
Neither do I concern myself with great matters,
Nor with things too profound for me.
2 Surely I have calmed and quieted my soul,
Like a weaned child with his mother;
Like a weaned child is my soul within me.
3 O Israel, hope in the Lord
From this time forth and forever.

This is the testimony of a mature Christian.

 

[HopeSings]

The question proposed in the title of the OP is of course,
immediately answered by the verse cited by way of a metaphor.
The question then becomes, what does this mean, to be:
"weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts"?
The quotation from Hebrews 5 is cited because the most
immediate answer is to say a mature Christian
leaving to debate what constitutes "a mature Christian"?

The answer to the question proposed in Isaiah is answered
by David in the Psalms:
131:
1 Lord, my heart is not haughty,
Nor my eyes lofty.
Neither do I concern myself with great matters,
Nor with things too profound for me.
2 Surely I have calmed and quieted my soul,
Like a weaned child with his mother;
Like a weaned child is my soul within me.
3 O Israel, hope in the Lord
From this time forth and forever.

This is the testimony of a mature Christian.

Things sure are too lofty for me.

 

[Mr. M]

Why does Paul quote this verse here?
1 Corinthians 14:21 In the law it is written:
With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,
says the Lord.

How is this relevant for today?
Or perhaps it is better to ask,
how is 1 Co 14 so easily dismissed?

20 Brethren, do not be children in understanding; however,
in malice be babes, but in understanding be mature.
21 In the law it is written:
“With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,”
says the Lord.
22 Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers;
but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe.

How can tongues be a sign to unbelievers, if they are not employed
as Paul delineates?