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Why can't both of those be true? We can see that the two testimonies written by 2 different people wrote their statement for a different reason, and from a different perspective. Matthew's point was that Judas was unrepentant and committed suicide out of the misery of guilt. Luke wrote that Judas' bowels burst open and the place was called the "field of blood." So then, could Judas have hanged himself in a tree, and some days later his bowels burst open after the body fell? Perhaps the neck rotted enough to sever the head, or perhaps someone cut him down. Maybe he used a thin rope to hang himself. The details aren't written, so we must assume they aren't important. What is important is that the writers of scripture wrote truth, and when people decide it's contradictory, it means they are pleased to accuse the writers of scripture with error, so that they can excuse themselves from believing any of it.Matthew 27:
Judas hanged himself and died. His body was left hanging, then Acts 1:
See also Who bought the field of blood?.
Acts 1:
16. Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus.
17. For he was numbered with us, and had obtained part of this ministry.
18. Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.
19. And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood.
20. For it is written in the book of Psalms, Let his habitation be desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his bishoprick let another take.
For example, ...Can it apply the lessons to men and women
Did I say they can't?Why can't both of those be true?
Matt 11 the condemnation of the cities of Galilee.For example, ...
How does this OP apply to condemning the cities of Galilee?Matt 11 the condemnation of the cities of Galilee.
By "imply" do you mean it in the First-Order Logical sense?No, but as it's written, it seems to imply that you're advocating that it's a contradiction.
I don't know what you mean by that. Usually when someone presents a comparison like that which contrasts events, they are saying or implying that it's a contradiction. Of course, it depends on the agenda of the individual. If you would have stated what your reason was, instead of merely presenting some information, then one would not have to surmise what your point is. If you state your point clearly, there is no misunderstanding.By "imply" do you mean it in the First-Order Logical sense?