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Did John scatter like the rest of the disciples?

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Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me. - John 16:32



Jesus said they would all be scattered, but John waited at the foot of the cross with Mary until the end.

Can you show me in Scripture where it says that John scattered before Jesus' death as Jesus said would happen?

Someone I am speaking with is insisting that John was a better disciple because he did not abandon Jesus like the others.
 

Faulty

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John ran from the garden, was absent from the mock trials and there is no record of what he did immediately following the crucifixion.

At least Peter fought back in the garden, and hung around in the crowd at the trials, at least long enough to deny Him as foretold.
 
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JimB

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It depends on who “the disciple Jesus loved” (John 19.26) was who was at the cross with Jesus and Jesus’ mother. Tradition and scholarship believe this was John’s oblique reference to himself but that is debatable. If it was the same “the disciple Jesus loved” who was with Jesus at the Last Supper (John 13.23), then John did not forsake the Lord. Personally, I agree.

~Jim

Man is not the centre. God does not exist for the sake of man. Man does not exist for his own sake. “Thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.” (C.S. Lewis, The Problem of Pain)

 
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JimB

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If Jesus said that they "shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone", then that is exactly what happened.

Ever hear of a synecdoche? It’s a common figure of speech in every language in which a part is used to represent the whole, or the whole for a part. To say, the United States went to war does not mean that every person in the country went to war. It does not even mean everyone supports the war. We know exactly what it means. When Jesus said every man will be scattered to his own, and shall leave me alone we have to wonder who that “disciple” was in John 19.26—When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother [from the cross], "Woman, behold, your son!"

Did that disciple scatter to his own and leave Christ alone? I really would like to know how you interpret that verse in the light of the OP.

~Jim

Man is not the centre. God does not exist for the sake of man. Man does not exist for his own sake.
“Thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.” (C.S. Lewis, The Problem of Pain)
 
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Citizen of the Kingdom

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Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me. - John 16:32



Jesus said they would all be scattered, but John waited at the foot of the cross with Mary until the end.

Can you show me in Scripture where it says that John scattered before Jesus' death as Jesus said would happen?

Someone I am speaking with is insisting that John was a better disciple because he did not abandon Jesus like the others.
I think the only merit John has is that he recorded all the events before John the Baptist's death, while the rest of the gospels begin at the baptist's death.
 
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Always in His Presence

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Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me. - John 16:32



Jesus said they would all be scattered, but John waited at the foot of the cross with Mary until the end.

Can you show me in Scripture where it says that John scattered before Jesus' death as Jesus said would happen?

Someone I am speaking with is insisting that John was a better disciple because he did not abandon Jesus like the others.


John scattered just as much as every other disciple did from the garden.

Jesus was completely forsaken.
 
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Deba

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Mark 14:50-53
Then everyone deserted him and fled. A young man, wearing nothing but a linen garment, was following Jesus. When they seized him, he fled naked, leaving his garment behind. They took Jesus to the high priest,...
Looks like they all fled, at least one naked, and the only one arrested and taken to the high priest was Jesus. And we know that all except Judas was with Him in the garden. Which would explain Peter following from a distance and lying - he'd evaded arrest once already that night.
 
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Mark 14:50-53
Looks like they all fled, at least one naked, and the only one arrested and taken to the high priest was Jesus. And we know that all except Judas was with Him in the garden. Which would explain Peter following from a distance and lying - he'd evaded arrest once already that night.

Thanks Deba, I remember that Scripture, but I wasn't sure where it was. I know some scholars believe the naked one was John.

I think it is significant though that they all fled.

Nevertheless, John apparently did come back which I think shows that his relationship was based in love for Jesus more so than the others.
 
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JimB

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John scattered just as much as every other disciple did from the garden.

Jesus was completely forsaken.

Has anybody explained who this disciple was and why he was at the Cross with Jesus mother if he had “forsaken” him and why Jesus would say to his mother regarding this disciple, “Behold your son”?
25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold your mother!” And from that hour that disciple took her to his own home. (John 19)
That doesn’t sound like forsaking to me … unless you have another definition of the word.

I really would like to hear someone who believes that “all” the disciples forsook Jesus explain this verse in the light of their position. Apparently, this disciple did not forsake him or flee.

If this question is too difficult for you, please continue to ignore it.

~Jim

We were made not primarily that we may love God (though we were made for that too) but that God may love us, that we may become objects in which the Divine love may rest “well pleased.” ~C.S. Lewis, The Problem of Pain
 
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Yekcidmij

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It depends on who “the disciple Jesus loved” (John 19.26) was who was at the cross with Jesus and Jesus’ mother. Tradition and scholarship believe this was John’s oblique reference to himself but that is debatable. If it was the same “the disciple Jesus loved” who was with Jesus at the Last Supper (John 13.23), then John did not forsake the Lord. Personally, I agree.

~Jim


I think you're right; it depends on who the author of this gospel is. Who is the beloved disciple?

-We know that this disciple is the one who leaned against Jesus at the last supper and asked who would betray him (21:20; 13:23-25).
-We know there was a rumor about this disciple in the first century that he would live until Jesus returned (21:21-23).
-We know he was the disciple that went to the tomb with Peter (20:2)
-We know he was at the cross and took care of Mary from then on (19:26).
-We know he had some connecetion to the high priest (18:15-16)

Other things to note:
-He shows good knowledge of Jewish customs and JEwish scripture, meaning he was probably Jewish.
-He was familiar with geographical information in Palestine, meaning he was probably a resident of Judea.
-the sons of Zebedee (James and John) are never mentioned by name in this gospel.
-Peter James and John are the well attested pillars of the early church in Jerusalem, and James was martyred early on leaving only Peter and John.
-There are two other disciples who are not mentioned by name (21:2).
-He was probably a disciple of John the baptist before Jesus (1:35, 40).

One solution to this is that the author is the disciple John. And there is good reason to think this. John was, in addition to Peter, one of the pillars of the early church. He would have known many of the details of Jesus' interactions with his closest disciples. He may have purposefully not mentioned his name for security purposes, after all, his brother had already been killed for his faith and John may have even written this while in exile himself on Patmos. Early church tradition is also pretty solid on the author being John (see Papias). I think the solution that the author is the apostle John is certainly very plausible.

Another interesting solution is that the author was none other than Lazarus. (1) The story of Lazarus only occurs in this gospel and it is given a central place of importance here that the other gospels do not give to it (the other gospels don't even tell this story), more on this piece to follow. (2) Lazarus is presented as being very close to Jesus (ch 11). (3) We are specifically told in this gospel no less than 3 times that Jesus "loved" Lazarus, and we are not told this information about any of the other disciples (11:3, 5, 11, 36). The thinking here is that Lazarus is hiding his identity because he is in danger of arrest in the first century. Why? Note the response of the Jewish leaders' to Lazarus' resurrection - they plan to kill Lazarus as well (12:10). Lazarus would need some cover if he were writing dangerous literature, so he doesn't mention his own name. And this would make good sense of the rumor at the end of the gospel that the writer would live until Jesus' return. If Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead, people might very well have thought that he would live until the second coming.

This also explains two other things that happen in Matthew Mark and Luke: (1) the absense of Lazarus and (2) the mysterious man in the garden in Mark's gospel. The absence of Lazarus in Matthew through Luke would be, also, because of the need to keep Lazarus protected from the authorities. A man raised by Jesus that was still walking around after Jesus' death would be a very dangerous individual indeed. In Mark 14:51 there is a mysterious individaul who runs off naked in the chaos of the arrest of Jesus in the garden. Some people have suggested that this man is Lazarus and that Mark is purposefully not mentioning his name (Matthew and Luke don't even mention this detail at all). The interesting thing to note here is that the word used in 14:51 for "linen cloth" is used everywhere else when refering to grave clothes (Matt 27:59, Mark 15:46, Luke 23:53). Is this a purposeful attempt to disclose the identity of this man with a reference to grave clothes? One of the most interesting suggestions I've seen is that Lazarus actually went into Jerusalem with Jesus during his triumphal entry WEARING HIS GRAVE CLOTHES. The effect would have been enormous if this happened - Jesus rides in acting like a messiah along with his followers, one of which Jesus raised from the dead and was still wearing his grave clothes to show it! No doubt the crowds and leaders would have been interested in such a man entering Jerusalem. I don't know if I would buy that explanation, but it's an interesting idea.


In any case, I think the author is likely either John or Lazarus. Whoever he is he writes from and insiders perspective and he writes to an audience who I think would have readily recognized who he was with the little hints he drops here and there through the story. Unfortunately, we are not that first century audience so the author's identity is a little more muddy to us.

Oh, and whoever he was, he obviously didn't abandon Jesus since he followed him to the cross according to the story.
 
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Always in His Presence

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Has anybody explained who this disciple was and why he was at the Cross with Jesus mother if he had “forsaken” him and why Jesus would say to his mother regarding this disciple, “Behold your son”?

Have any of you thought about taking some basic Bible study courses? It might help you.

Do you really believe that John was the only one of the disciples who witnessed first hand the death of Jesus?

Do you think John was with Jesus before the Sanhedrin?

Was John with Christ when He was being scourged?

Did John stand next to Christ at His trial?

Or did he forsake Jesus?
 
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Always in His Presence

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Let's stop all the assumption theology and just read what the word says.

John 16:31 Jesus answered them, “Do you now believe? 32 Indeed the hour is coming, yes, has now come, that you will be scattered, each to his own, and will leave Me alone. And yet I am not alone, because the Father is with Me. 33 These things I have spoken to you, that in Me you may have peace. In the world you will have tribulation; but be of good cheer, I have overcome the world.”​
Who is the "them" Jesus was speaking to?

Well read the verses before it.

In fact, you have to go back to John 13 to find that this entire dissertation from Jesus happened at the last supper.

Question: Was John at the last supper? If the answer is yes, then John was certainly part of the "them" in this sentence. And if John was the only one who was not scattered then Jesus made a stupid mistake or lied when He said each would be scattered.

So let's look forward to the garden, because that is what Jesus was referring to.

What happened there - is there any mention any where in the four Gospels that John was with Jesus?

NOT ONE

Sorry, this assumption doesn't hold water.
 
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JimB

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Have any of you thought about taking some basic Bible study courses? It might help you.

Do you really believe that John was the only one of the disciples who witnessed first hand the death of Jesus?

Do you think John was with Jesus before the Sanhedrin?

Was John with Christ when He was being scourged?

Did John stand next to Christ at His trial?

Or did he forsake Jesus?

Yeah, Joe, we’ve been through all that. :sigh: But I asked a simple question back at #11 no one has yet answered. In fact, your tactic seems to be to cloud the issue by repeating old questions of your own. And I do not feel obligated to answer any of your questions until you at least answer the simple one. Here it is again …
Has anybody explained who this disciple was and why he was at the Cross with Jesus mother if he had “forsaken” him and why Jesus would say to his mother regarding this disciple, “Behold your son”?
25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold your mother!” And from that hour that disciple took her to his own home. (John 19)
That doesn’t sound like forsaking to me … unless you have another definition of the word.

I really would like to hear someone who believes that “all” the disciples forsook Jesus explain this verse in the light of their position. Apparently, this disciple did not forsake him or flee.

If this question is too difficult for you, please continue to ignore it.
~Jim

We were made not primarily that we may love God (though we were made for that too) but that God may love us, that we may become objects in which the Divine love may rest “well pleased.” ~C.S. Lewis, The Problem of Pain
 
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JimB

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He evidently fled arrest in the garden, but showed up the next day at some point during the cruxification and stood with the women.

I agree. John, if he is indeed the “disciple whom Jesus loved”, may have initially “scattered” and “fled” from the Garden with the rest but almost immediately repented and returned to stand with Jesus’ mother at the cross.

~Jim

We were made not primarily that we may love God (though we were made for that too) but that God may love us, that we may become objects in which the Divine love may rest “well pleased.” ~C.S. Lewis, The Problem of Pain
 
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Always in His Presence

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Yeah, Joe, we’ve been through all that. :sigh: But I asked a simple question back at #11 no one has yet answered. In fact, your tactic seems to be to cloud the issue by repeating old questions of your own. And I do not feel obligated to answer any of your questions until you at least answer the simple one. Here it is again …

Nor do I feel obligated to answer a question of yours even though you repeat it over and over. And why do I not answer your question? Because your tactics are based on pure assumption that you present as established fact.

That is the weakness of the assumption theology.

But to show you my openness to explain myself, I will address your assumptive question.


Has anybody explained who this disciple was and why he was at the Cross with Jesus mother if he had “forsaken” him and why Jesus would say to his mother regarding this disciple, “Behold your son”?
25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold your mother!” And from that hour that disciple took her to his own home. (John 19)
That doesn’t sound like forsaking to me … unless you have another definition of the word. [\quote]

Here is the ridiculousness of this question because in your answer to Debra, you admit that John was one of the ones who scattered.
I agree. John, if he is indeed the “disciple whom Jesus loved”, may have initially “scattered” and “fled” from the Garden with the rest but almost immediately repented and returned to stand with Jesus’ mother at the cross.
To answer your question I would have to:

Ignore what the scripture says happened (see my previous post) and

- ASSUME John was the only disciple at the cross

- ASSUME that if the other disciples where at the cross Jesus would have said the same thing to them. Thus giving His mother 11 sons.

- ASSUME that somehow forsaking Jesus was for everyone BUT John, contradicting Jesus' own words.

IOW I would have to ignore Jesus' own words and believe your ASSUMPTION instead.

- ASSUME that John repented and NO ONE ELSE did.


That is why I did not answer your question. Too much conjecture, too little Word.
 
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