Did Jesus ABOLISH the Mosaic Law?

[tonychanyt]

That depends on what you mean by abolish.

Moses' Law separated Jews from the Gentiles.

Jesus predicted the destruction of the temple in Matthew 24:

2 he answered them, “You see all these, do you not? Truly, I say to you, there will not be left here one stone upon another that will not be thrown down [G2647].”

thrown down
καταλυθήσεται (katalythēsetai)
Verb - Future Indicative Passive - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 2647: From kata and luo; to loosen down, i.e. to demolish.

Strong's Greek: 2647. καταλύω (kataluó) — 17 Occurrences

Jesus predicted the temple would be G2647-demolished or broken down or dismantled.

This same Greek word was used earlier. Jesus declared in Matthew 5:

17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish [G2647] the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.

Jesus did not H2647-dismantle the Law, but the physical Jerusalem temple would be H2647-dismantled. The demolition of the temple was a sign that Jesus fulfilled the Law. The temple was no longer necessary to reach the LORD.

Paul added in Ephesians 2:

14 For he himself is our peace, who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility 15a by abolishing [G2673] in His flesh the law of commandments and decrees.

This is a different κατα-word.

by abolishing
καταργήσας (katargēsas)
Verb - Aorist Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's 2673: From kata and argeo; to be entirely idle

Strong's Greek: 2673. καταργέω (katargeó) — 27 Occurrences

HELPS Word-studies:

2673 katargéō (from 2596 /katá, "down to a point," intensifying 691 /argéō, "inactive, idle") – properly, idle down, rendering something inert ("completely inoperative"); i.e. being of no effect (totally without force, completely brought down); done away with, cause to cease and therefore abolish; make invalid, abrogate (bring to nought); "to make idle or inactive".

By his sacrifice on the cross in the flesh, Jesus G2673-abolished or idled down the Law and did not G2647-demolish it.

15b He did this to create in Himself one new man out of the two, thus making peace

In Christ, there is no more distinction between Jews and Gentiles. There is only one new humanity.

16 and reconciling both of them to God in one body through the cross, by which He extinguished their hostility.

In Christ, there is no partition between Jews and Gentiles and there is no partition between men and God. Now, everyone can approach God through the sacrifice of Christ.

Instead of abolished, Berean Literal Bible uses:

having annulled in His flesh the law of commandments in ordinances, so that He might create in Himself the two into one new man, making peace,

Did Jesus abolish Moses' law?

Because the meanings of καταλύω and vκαταργέω overlap, I am not even against people who say that Jesus abolished the Law so long as they understand that Jesus did not dismantle the Law into fallen pieces as the Romans did to the Temple in 70 AD. In any case, Jesus did abolish the partition between Jews and Gentiles, and between men and God, by fulfilling the Law and the Prophets.

Paul explained in Acts 13:

39 Through him [Jesus] everyone who believes is set free from every sin, a justification you were not able to obtain under the law of Moses.

and in Romans 10:

4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

Hebrews 8:

13 In speaking of a new covenant, he makes the first one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete [G3822] and growing old is ready to vanish away.

The temple became obsolete in 70 AD. The Mosiac Law is not destroyed but is annulled.

See also

• WHOEVER relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches OTHERS to do the same
• Is the old covenant obsolete or becoming obsolete?, u/Good_Move7060, u/njamimaranga

 

[Reasonably Sane]

To use an analogy, I compare it to a lease with an option to purchase. And the option is exercised when a person accepts Jesus' free gift.

 

[Ted-01]

The Mosiac Law is not destroyed but is annulled.

I agree with all your post Tony... nicely done!

The idea that the entirety of the Law was abolished is difficult for many. Often, I hear a counterargument that asks, are you saying that it's okay to steal, murder, commit adultery, (etc.), then!?!
No.

God's character and all of His supreme attributes, that all of the Laws contained, are still in place. God hasn't changed at all... hasn't moved an inch.
Christ's fulfilling the Law, completely was an act of extreme love, grace and mercy. The New is so much more superior.

Heb. 8:6-7 ESV
6 But as it is, Christ has obtained a ministry that is as much more excellent than the old as the covenant he mediates is better, since it is enacted on better promises. 7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no occasion to look for a second.

 

[jamiec]

That depends on what you mean by abolish.

Moses' Law separated Jews from the Gentiles.

Jesus predicted the destruction of the temple in Matthew 24:


thrown down
καταλυθήσεται (katalythēsetai)
Verb - Future Indicative Passive - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 2647: From kata and luo; to loosen down, i.e. to demolish.

Strong's Greek: 2647. καταλύω (kataluó) — 17 Occurrences

Jesus predicted the temple would be G2647-demolished or broken down or dismantled.

This same Greek word was used earlier. Jesus declared in Matthew 5:


Jesus did not H2647-dismantle the Law, but the physical Jerusalem temple would be H2647-dismantled. The demolition of the temple was a sign that Jesus fulfilled the Law. The temple was no longer necessary to reach the LORD.

Paul added in Ephesians 2:


This is a different κατα-word.

by abolishing
καταργήσας (katargēsas)
Verb - Aorist Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's 2673: From kata and argeo; to be entirely idle

Strong's Greek: 2673. καταργέω (katargeó) — 27 Occurrences

HELPS Word-studies:


By his sacrifice on the cross in the flesh, Jesus G2673-abolished or idled down the Law and did not G2647-demolish it.


In Christ, there is no more distinction between Jews and Gentiles. There is only one new humanity.


In Christ, there is no partition between Jews and Gentiles and there is no partition between men and God. Now, everyone can approach God through the sacrifice of Christ.

Instead of abolished, Berean Literal Bible uses:


Did Jesus abolish Moses' law?

Because the meanings of καταλύω and vκαταργέω overlap, I am not even against people who say that Jesus abolished the Law so long as they understand that Jesus did not dismantle the Law into fallen pieces as the Romans did to the Temple in 70 AD. In any case, Jesus did abolish the partition between Jews and Gentiles, and between men and God, by fulfilling the Law and the Prophets.

Paul explained in Acts 13:


and in Romans 10:


Hebrews 8:


The temple became obsolete in 70 AD. The Mosiac Law is not destroyed but is annulled.

See also

• WHOEVER relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches OTHERS to do the same
• Is the old covenant obsolete or becoming obsolete?, u/Good_Move7060, u/njamimaranga

A lot of the Torah was obsolete by the time of Jesus anyway. A king cannot be expected to read the Torah, if no king is available to be told to do so.

It is beyond irrational to expect Christians to obey laws that were a dead letter even in pre-Christian Judaism. And in fact, the Apostles are on several occasions shown ignoring the Torah: the baptism of the Ethiopian Eunuch stomps all over Deuteronomy 23.1. And Deuteronomy 21.23 declares that he who is hanged on a tree - as Jesus was - is cursed by God.