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Sorry but there is not such thing as "original" greek new testament manuscripts because the new testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic. The septuagint was the greek translation of the Hebrew new testament!
Wonder of wonders.........it says the same thing in the NIV and ESV!Paul said this in 1Corinthians:1:10: "Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment." This IS the Christian experience. .
Nope.Sorry but there is not such thing as "original" greek new testament manuscripts because the new testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic. The septuagint was the greek translation of the Hebrew new testament!
Wrong. It was a Greek translation of the OLD testament.The septuagint was the greek translation of the Hebrew new testament!
Which - unfortunately, are no longer in existence.
Sorry but there is not such thing as "original" greek new testament manuscripts because the new testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic. The septuagint was the greek translation of the Hebrew new testament!
There are Aramaic manuscripts that go back to the time of the ECFs that have not been altered by them, as early as some of the oldest Greek manuscripts.Therefore, we must rely on copies of MSS that go back a long way. We can quote most of the NT from the church fathers.
That is true. Have you ever heard of (or read) the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy?In my understanding, no translation is inerrant.
That's because you and I are flawed, imperfect, ineffective and sinful.
There are Aramaic manuscripts that go back to the time of the ECFs that have not been altered by them, as early as some of the oldest Greek manuscripts.
That is true. Have you ever heard of (or read) the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy?
Opening paragraph X:
"We affirm that inspiration, strictly speaking, applies only to the autographic text of Scripture."
1 John: 3. 9. Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
We are joint heirs in the body of Christ by his Blood.
God cannot look upon sin ,therefore we through Christ have been redeemed from the flawed sin nature into the perfection of the body of Christ.
All men have sinned ,but Christ has made us sinless by his Blood.
It is called grace.
now faith,
Christ has not made us sinless by his blood sacrifice. This sacrifice means I am justified by faith - declared righteous. It's a legal position before God.
As to your use of the KJV of 1 John 3:9, it conveys a view that the Greek language does not support.
The translators of the NIV have tried to convey the meaning of the Greek tenses in this verse, 1 John 3:9 (NIV): 'No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in them; they cannot go on sinning, because they have been born of God'.
There is a similar message to this in 1 John 3:6 (NIV), 'No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him'.
The issues from 1 John 3:9 (NIV) are:
That's my understanding of 1 John 3:9 and the Greek verb used. Also, it makes practical sense. We know from the preceding verse, 1 John 3:8 (ESV) that 'whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil'. In other words, they have not been born of God.
- We are talking about those who are born again (favourite language of John), those who are 'born of God'. We are talking about Christians who have been changed from the inside by God.
- These Christians will not continue to sin as a lifestyle. They cannot go on sinning in that way. The Greek present tense verb indicates continuous action, so the NIV presents an acceptable translation. The thought in this verse is NOT that Christians will never commit acts of sin. It is not saying that born again believers will not sin but that they will not persist in sin.
- So, the born again believer cannot live in habitual sin.
- BUT, there is the possibility of committing occasional acts of sin - as I can testify in my
- own life. If we commit those acts of sin, 1 John 1:9 (NIV) tells us what we are to do: 'If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness'.
That's my exegesis for what it's worth.
Oz
I like theI've used NIV almost my whole life, I don't know why but I've always favoured that one and it never seems to make other people's most accurate translation lists. What are everyone's top three?
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
Based on your first paragraph, am I to assume that salvation is a continuous progression of faith?
To say that salvation is simply a justification to declare a legal position before God,seems to declare that the work of Christ was simply to keep a contract ,or covenant with Abraham.
It was God who gave Abraham the promise, and John 3: 16 tells us the reason.
For God so loved..
Paragraph 2 is vindicated by Roman's 8
Paragraph 3 I agree
Paragraph 4 I agree to the point where a sin does not remove us from the atonement of Christ.
The last statement is a bit confusing due to switching translations to enforce a point.
This negates the validity of the NIV,since it does not convey the best message for a practical exegesis.
1 John: 3. 9. Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
We are joint heirs in the body of Christ by his Blood.
God cannot look upon sin ,therefore we through Christ have been redeemed from the flawed sin nature into the perfection of the body of Christ.
All men have sinned ,but Christ has made us sinless by his Blood.
It is called grace.
Sorry but there is not such thing as "original" greek new testament manuscripts because the new testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic. The septuagint was the greek translation of the Hebrew new testament!
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