1 Corinthians 15:29

According to St. Francis De Sales, "This passage properly understood evidently shows that it
was the custom of the primitive Church to watch, pray, fast, for the souls of the departed. For, firstly,
in the Scriptures to be baptized is often taken for afflictions and penances; as in S. Luke, chap xii., where
Our Lord speaking of his Passion says: I have a baptism wherewith I am to be baptized, and how am I
straitened until it be accomplished — and in S. Mark, chap X., he says: Can you drink of the chalice that I
drink of; or be baptized with the baptism where I am baptized? — in which places Our Lord calls pains
and afflictions baptism. This then is the sense of that Scripture: if the dead rise not again, what is the use
of mortifying and afflicting oneself, of praying and fasting for the dead? And indeed this sentence of
S. Paul resembles that of Machabees quoted above: It is superfluous and vain to pray for the dead if the
dead rise not again."

RileyG said:

What does this verse mean?

"Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?"- 1 Corinthians 15:29

Are there any Biblical scholars or theologians on this forum?

Anyone? anyone?

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This is from the George Haydock Commentary, found in print with some versions of the Douay–Rheims Bible, and in eSword app and as a separate book

Who are baptized for the dead.
[1] He still brings other proofs of the resurrection. This is a hard place, and the words are differently expounded. 1. Several late interpreters understand a metaphorical baptism, and that to be baptized for the dead, is to undertake self-denials, mortifications, and works of penance, in hopes of a happy resurrection; and this exposition agrees with what follows, of being exposed to dangers every hour, of dying daily, &c. But if this had been the apostle’s meaning, he would rather have said, Who baptize themselves. Besides, this exposition is not so much as mentioned in any of the ancient interpreters.

2. Some think that St. Paul tells the Corinthians that they ought not to question the resurrection of the dead, who had a custom among them, if any one died without baptism, to baptize another that was living for him; and this they did, fancying that such a baptism would be profitable to the dead person, in order to a happy resurrection. Tertullian mentions this custom in one or two places, and also St. John Chrysostom on this place. But it does not seem probable that St. Paul would bring any argument of the resurrection from a custom which he himself could not approve, nor was ever approved in the Church.

3. St. John Chrysostom and the Greek interpreters, who generally follow him, expound these words, who are baptized for the dead, as if it were the same as to say, who receive baptism with hopes that they themselves, and all the dead, will rise again; and therefore make a profession, when they are baptized, that they believe the resurrection. So that St. Paul here brings this proof among others, that they who have been made Christians, and continue Christians, cannot call in question the resurrection, which they professed to believe in their creed at their baptism, the creed being always repeated before they were baptized.

4. Others, by being baptized for the dead, understand those who begged and called for baptism when they were in danger of death, and would by no means go out of this world without being baptized, hoping thereby to have a happy resurrection of their bodies; so that to be baptized for the dead is the same as on the account of the state of the dead, which they were entering into. See St. Epiphanius, hær. viii. p. 144. Edit Petavii. (Witham) Some think the apostle here alludes to a ceremony then in use: but others, more probably, to the prayers and penitential labours performed by the primitive Christians for the souls of the faithful departed: or to the baptism of afflictions and sufferings undergone for sinners spiritually dead. (Challoner)

RileyG said:

What does this verse mean?

"Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?"- 1 Corinthians 15:29

Are there any Biblical scholars or theologians on this forum?

Anyone? anyone?

Click to expand...

HI Riles:

True fact: I've been asked to leave every bible study group I've ever joined.

My contribution to these group was seen as, odd, I guess. Not what everyone else want to talk about.

So, I was going to let this one pass because, who needs to be told you're wrong all the time ?

But....

....then I read Corinthians 15 and the verse in context and I think I can help you here.

Let me take a wack at it (and I'm gonna fail here a little because I can't really explain this in the detail I think it needs)

Historical context: Paul writing to the Corinthians. Corinth is a Greek city and trade hub, cosmopolitan people, center of Rational Philosophic thought heavily influenced by Aristotle. This is important, Paul always wrote his letters with his audience in mind, he would have known to approach the subject of Jesus from a Rational standpoint.

Philosophic context: Rational Philosophic thought was a Greek attempt to explain Monotheism through philosophy. The Greeks thought it was possible to 'prove' the existence of a single Godhead using logic and physical observation.

My interpretation: These letters were written WAY before the doctrine of the Trinity was worked out, and Paul is having some trouble here dealing with Christ as the Incarnation and, simultaneously, being part of what he calls "The One". Basically what we have here is Paul trying to explain to a bunch of rational thinkers how the mechanics of the Incarnation, all creation and a single Godhead actually fit together logically.

I'm not a big fan of St. Paul, but honestly, he's doing a really good job.

Read the whole chapter, Riles, from the standpoint of someone who see theology as an exercise in pure logic, and it makes a lot more sense.

RileyG said:

What does this verse mean?

"Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?"- 1 Corinthians 15:29

Are there any Biblical scholars or theologians on this forum?

Anyone? anyone?

Click to expand...

I'm not Roman catholic, but if I am allowed to answer... Does Romans 6:3-5 help?
"Baptized for the dead", as in the case of becoming dead, rather than in the place of dead ones.

If then you read it like this
That should allay the confusion.

Or, we can read it like this:
That would also allay the confusion.

In either case, we must remember that a Bible translation is not the Hebrew or Greek in which Bible writers penned the text, and consider using an interlinear.
Greek (ὑπέρ huper: over, beyond, fig. on behalf of, for the sake of, concerning)
Greek (αὐτός autos: (1) self (emphatic) (2) he, she, it (used for the third pers. pron.) (3) the same)
...and we can also see if other scripture can help shed light.

I'm no scholar, but I certainly learned a lot being a student.

*Permission to post in full*

Question:​

What does being baptized "on behalf of the dead" mean?

Answer:​

In 1 Corinthians 15:29, Paul writes, “What do people mean by being baptized on behalf of the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?” The phrase “on behalf of the dead” is not actually in the Greek. The Greek word can mean “for” or “for the sake of,” not necessarily “on behalf of.”
Paul has been discussing the resurrection of the dead, and he brings up this custom of which we know little to help make his point. The Navarre Bible (“Corinthians,” 148) explains:

[Paul] makes reference to a strange custom that implicitly indicates belief in resurrection. No other source provides information about this custom, and therefore it is not possible to say exactly what it involved. . . . The apostle is neither approving [nor] condemning this custom; he is simply saying that it demonstrates Christian belief in the resurrection of the dead.

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It is not clear that Paul envisioned one person being baptized in the place of a dead person. He may have meant something else, such as being baptized in order to be united with one’s Christian loved ones who had died.