First, let me say that regardless of who is right, or who is wrong in this discussion, we know that the convictions of a believer will stand as a measure of rule in our judgment. So, seeing you believe women should have the rule over men, and teach them, for you, your belief sets the standard.
Women "having the rule over men", no - unless they happen to be the queen of a country.
There are times when women are senior, to men - maybe as judges, consultants, headteachers etc. They will be in that higher position because they have greater qualifications and experience and/or have been appointed to that senior role by others. In terms of their role, they are the higher authority; the buck stops with them. In terms of being superior people and telling others what to do; no.
Same with all clergy. Like it or not, most churches have a hierarchy - a vicar is senior to, and has authority over, a curate, a Minister over a lay preacher, a Moderator over a Minister, a bishop over a rural dean and so on. That applies to men and women.
Do I believe God can call women to these positions? Yes.
First, I'd like to know your answer for how a woman can be the husband of one wife?
I think that
@Paidiske, who knows Greek, has already explained this better than I could.
The meaning is "one woman man", which is an idiom for monogamy and faithfulness.
Also, I believe that women were not able to be leaders then. So there would have been little point in Paul saying "female leaders must be wives of only one husband" - that wasn't possible for women then.
Just as when Jesus was asked about divorce it was, "can a man divorce his wife?" Women had no rights so of course they couldn't divorce their husbands. There is no point in forbidding someone from doing something if it is, in fact, not possible for them to do it. It would be like telling me not to get drunk or giving me a lecture on sobriety - I don't drink and never have.
Next, regarding the above quote, I would point out that, while we see females in the role of Judge and Prophetess, what we do not find are female Priestesses. Why is that significant? Israel stands as an Old Testament picture of the Church.
Then the church should be governed only by Jews.
People who point out that Jesus chose only men to be his disciples, should realise that he only chose Jews.
And you may not realise but the term "Priestess" has pagan overtones.
In the Anglican church female clergy are priests. When a deacon becomes a curate, they are priested.
I would also like to mention something else based on statements you have made in regards to whether, because Eve was created after Adam. women are inferior to men (the implication being, women are not, thus submission is a moot issue).
No, women are not inferior to men.
Eve was created to be Adam's helper - Adam was not complete without her - and both were created in God's image.
I might be wrong but I feel it is only in our culture that "helper" has come to imply inferiority, as in, "do you run the charity shop?" "No, I'm just a helper". In such a scenario the distinction is one of role - boss and worker, or boss and unpaid volunteer.
But the Holy Spirit is described as our helper.
Aaron and Miriam helped Moses. Moses was appointed and carried the can, but his siblings were no less important.
I believe we start to have problems when we think of people as being superior/inferior to other people. God created ALL in his image.
My (male) Minister said to us years ago; "I am not better than you, I just have more responsibility and, in church matters, authority."
In Christ—there is neither male nor female. The point being, this standing is in an entirely different culture and economy from that of your proof text.
I don't have a proof text - I say that we should look at the whole of Scripture and the role of women, or what God called women to do.
But let's work with what we have:
1 Timothy 2:11-14
King James Version
11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
Context is important.
First of all, in 1 Tim 2:8-9 Paul talks of all men everywhere and women. In verse 11 he then uses the singular - why? Why not say "I want" - or better still, God commands - "that women everywhere keep silent in church"?
But let's assume for a moment that Paul said womAn when he actually meant womEn.
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A woman should learn in silence".
Two things here; i) women should learn (they were not allowed to) and ii) they should learn in silence - well obviously; so should men. How can you hear what a teacher is saying if you are talking to others?
"But I suffer not a woman to teach nor to usurp authority over a man."
Again, two things. i) Paul is saying that HE does not allow, not that God doesn't (even though he allowed Priscilla to teach Apollos) and ii) the word "usurp" means to forcibly grab or snatch. I understand that the Greek word used here is used nowhere else in the NT. How is teaching, forcibly grabbing authority from men? And in the context of preachers, how has a female Minister/Pastor/preacher who has a male tutor, mentor, Minister or bishop - and is therefore under their authority - snatched authority from those who have chosen to appoint and train her?
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For Adam was formed first, then Eve".
This describes the relationship between husband and wife, and in the NIV there is a note after verse 11 which says "woman, or wife".
Adam and Eve were not minister and layperson, or bishop and minister - it's a completely different relationship.
And it's not clear what he means by that anyway; animals were formed before humans but humans still have authority over them.
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And Adam was not deceived"
No, he was just plain disobedient. If you are/Paul is implying that women can't be ordained, or preach, because Eve was disobedient; men shouldn't be ordained or be able to preach because Adam KNEW what God had forbidden, and did it anyway. Sin came into the world through Adam, not Eve.
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But the women being deceived was in transgression".
All the more reason to let women learn, verse 11, so that they will not be deceived. In Genesis 2, Adam was given a command from God before Eve was created. There is no record that God appeared to Eve and gave her the same command, so it was probably down to Adam to tell her. But when the serpent said to her "DID God say ....?" and she repeated the command, she got it wrong - see Gen 2:16-17, Gen 3:3.
This is speculation, but it suggests to me that when Adam passed this important message on, Eve wasn't listening, wasn't concentrating or was talking to herself or an animal. So it was easier for the serpent to plant doubt in her mind - she wasn't sure. Adam knew perfectly well what God had said - he'd heard him. So the serpent didn't approach Adam.
Therefore; let the women learn They should do so in silence, and submitting to the teacher, for Eve was deceived and sinned because she didn't know.
I notice you didn't attempt to explain verse 15, but that is part of this passage. What does it mean? It's clearly not literal; women are saved through Jesus, not giving birth.
Did God make a mistake here, as well?
No, IMO it's people who make the mistake when they teach that a) this is a command from God and b) that it is to be taken literally - thus forbidding women from speaking.
Genesis 3:16
King James Version
16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.
It's clearly talking about the relationship between husband and wife and has nothing to do with female Ministers.
I have never desired my Minister - and he has never ruled over me.