Historicity of Mary vs significant inference -- ie not in the Bible?

BobRyan

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Someone posted a quote like this on a similar thread recently - quoting Raymond Brown.

Raymond E. Brown:

" Some Roman Catholics may have expected me to include a discussion of the historicity of the Immaculate Conception and the Assumption of Mary. But these Marian doctrines, which are not mentioned in Scripture, clearly lie outside my topic which was the quest for historical knowledge of Mary in the NT. Moreover, I would stress the ambiguity of the term “historicity” when applied to these two doctrines. A Roman Catholic must accept the two dogmas as true upon the authority of the teaching Church, but he does not have to hold that the dogmas are derived from a chain of historical information.
There is no evidence that Mary (or anyone else in NT times) knew that she was conceived free of original sin, especially since the concept of original sin did not fully exist in the first century. The dogma is not based upon information passed down by Mary or by the apostles;"​

Now I will continue the quote with parenthetical inserts - mine.

Raymond Brown continued:

"it is based on the Church’s insight (inference?, suggestion?) that the sinlessness of Jesus should have affected his origins, and hence his mother, as well."​
(i.e. the sinlessness of Jesus should have affected the origin/birth of his mother)​
"Nor does a Catholic have to think that the people gathered for her funeral saw Mary assumed into heaven—there is no reliable historical tradition to that effect, and the dogma does not even specify that Mary died. Once again the doctrine stems from the Church’s insight (inference, suggestion) about the application of the fruits of redemption to the leading disciple: Mary has gone before us, anticipating our common fate. Raymond E. Brown, Biblical Reflections on Crises facing the Church (New York: Paulist Press, 1975), p. 105, fn. 103.
==========================
The above is a statement from Raymond (that I DO agree with in many respects) is clear and concise.

We can anticipate that those opposing his stated view will surely try to dismiss this statement that DOES exist by imagine a negating-context for it that DOES NOT not exist.

==============
"In 1881 the Paulists established The Columbus Press in New York City. In 1913 The Columbus Press became the Paulist Press. It published books which explained the teachings of the Catholic faith"
===============
Isn't it interesting that the very key points where non Catholics differ with Catholic Marian doctrine - are the ones that Catholic scholars such as Brown - admit are not found in the Bible, and have no historicity in origin as if NT saints saw or wrote about such things?

In other words - logically - one must first BE a member of the Catholic church to then believe certain doctrines that have no source in the NT text or historic record from reliable first century sources.

===================
Raymond Brown --


"An American Sulpician priest and prominent biblical scholar. He was a specialist on the hypothetical Johannine community, which he speculated contributed to the authorship of the Gospel of John, and he also wrote studies on the birth and death of Jesus.

"Brown was professor emeritus at Union Theological Seminary (UTS) in New York City, where he taught for 29 years. He was the first Catholic professor to gain tenure there, where he earned a reputation as a superior lecturer.["

"Brown was appointed in 1972 to the Pontifical Biblical Commission and again in 1996. He was the Auburn Distinguished Professor of Biblical Studies at the Union Theological Seminary in New York City" (IE not considered a heretic by the Catholic Church - for those who were trying to grasp that sort of straw)
 
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BobRyan

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The implication of those observations by Brown - - is that we could not have a basis for discussing such doctrines outside of the Catholic church since anyone outside the church would have no logical basis for supposing the doctrines are true.
 
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HTacianas

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The implication of those observations by Brown - - is that we could not have a basis for discussing such doctrines outside of the Catholic church since anyone outside the church would have no logical basis for supposing the doctrines are true.

Actually there is a logical basis for but only when you take the Western view of original sin to its logical conclusion. The Western view is that all men are "born guilty" because of inherited original sin. But that would also make Jesus guilty because he was born of Mary and inherited original sin. So a way must be found to find that Jesus did not inherit original sin, leading to the idea of the Immaculate Conception. SO there is the logical basis for it: If this, then that.

It's one of the reasons why I don't hold to the Western view of original sin. The Eastern view holds that we are born with a propensity to sin. But having a propensity to sin does not imply guilt. Guilt is only imputed once one follows through on the propensity to sin and commits the act. So in the Western view we are born guilty, while in the Eastern view we are born innocent.
 
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BobRyan

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I think there is no basis for discussion because some believe in Sola Scriptura which itself is not taught in the Bible.
"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 -- which apparently some people think is not in the Bible.

Your statement - "there is no basis for discussion because some believe in Sola Scriptura" -- but then it turns out the Bible does teach that very thing - yet even so - "the discussion" ends as soon as you claim that your doctrine is not in the Bible and does not have the historicity of being taught by any reliable first century NT church source, as your own Catholic scholar does in the OP.

just stating the obvious at that point.
 
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concretecamper

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"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 -- which apparently some people think is not in the Bible.
because at that point, there was no Bible.
"there is no basis for discussion because some believe in Sola Scriptura" turn out the Bible does teach that - but even so - "the discussion" ends as soon as you claim that your doctrine is not in the Bible and does not have the historicity of being taught by any reliable first century NT church source, as your own Catholic scholar does in the OP.
there is no basis because some believe all truths that a Christian must believe must be explicit in the Bible, which the Bible never say.

The point is obvious.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:

The implication of those observations by Brown - - is that we could not have a basis for discussing such doctrines outside of the Catholic church since anyone outside the church would have no logical basis for supposing the doctrines are true.
Actually there is a logical basis for but only when you take the Western view of original sin to its logical conclusion.
It is the Catholic Author quoted in the OP that makes it clear that these Marian doctrines are not in the Bible AND also have no historicity in any reliable first century source.

Everyone on this board (that I know of ) believes that we are all born with a sinful nature - a bent toward rebellion against the Word of God. So that is "no the difference" we would need to establish.
The Western view is that all men are "born guilty" because of inherited original sin.
All are born with a sinful nature -- and so how blessed we are that "Christ is the atoning sacrifice for our sins and not for our sins only - but for the sins of the whole world" 1 John 2:2.

Does not make Mary "born sinless by her mother" and so - is not a doctrine in the Bible as the Catholic author in the OP also affirms
But that would also make Jesus guilty because he was born of Mary and inherited original sin.
Rom 5 says "guilty because born of Adam" - Christ's father was not Adam or Joseph.
So a way must be found to find that Jesus did not inherit original sin
No doubt having sinless God as His Father and not Joseph - does make a difference. Incarnation is not standard reproduction for humans.
, leading to the idea of the Immaculate Conception.
leading to the speculation?

I agree that everyone has the ability to speculate etc. But as the OP shows the doctrine cannot be found in the Bible nor does it have any historicity in a reliable first century source claiming that the first century church taught that Mary was born sinless, or that there was something special about Mary's mother, or that Mary was assumed into heaven etc.
SO there is the logical basis for it: If this, then that.
I agree that people can create new doctrines out of their reasonings, speculation etc -- but that is very different from an inspired doctrine found in the Word of God.
The Eastern view holds that we are born with a propensity to sin. But having a propensity to sin does not imply guilt. Guilt is only imputed once one follows through on the propensity to sin and commits the act. So in the Western view we are born guilty, while in the Eastern view we are born innocent.
The Bible says "The whole world" is held accountable and that there is "no one that seeks after God - no not one"., So we have a "sinful nature". Our nature itself needs the gospel transformation of a new creation new heart.

I agree with you that the baby with a sinful nature is not guilty of something since it has no abstract concept of something like disobedience, law, God, sin etc. But that does not establish the idea that Mary's mother gave birth to a sinless being, one without a sinful nature.
 
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BobRyan

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because at that point, there was no Bible.

there is no basis because some believe all truths that a Christian must believe must be explicit in the Bible, which the Bible never say.
On the contrary.

IF Catholics were to say "here is a list of our doctrines that are not in the Bible and have no historicity in reliable first century sources" -- I don't think anyone would object to their making such a list.

If they were to say "we think these doctrines are correct even though they are not in the Bible" we would have some interesting discussions but at least we get the first part of the conversation out of the way.
The point is obvious.
That is what I am thinking as well.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 -- which apparently some people think is not in the Bible.
because at that point, there was no Bible.

"They studied the scriptures" -- not "they studied something that did not exist". It does not say "there were no scriptures at that time so they either believed Paul's teaching or not - depending on their feelings".

I think we can all see that.

there is no basis because some believe all truths that a Christian must believe must be explicit in the Bible
"ALL scripture is given by inspiration from God AND is to be used for doctrine" 2 Tim 3:16 -- instead of "or just make stuff up" being added at the end.

"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 instead of adding "even though it does not matter whether Paul's teaching is in agreement with scripture or not", the text leaves that part out. But your suggestion is that we add it to scripture?

The point is obvious.
That is what I am thinking as well
 
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concretecamper

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"They studied the scriptures" -- not "they studied something that did not exist". It does not say "there were no scriptures at that time so they either believed Paul's teaching or not - depending on their feelings".
Hebrew scriptures (Tanakh)
"ALL scripture is given by inspiration from God AND is to be used for doctrine" 2 Tim 3:16 -- instead of "or just make stuff up" being added at the end.
Hebrew Scriptures (Tanakh)
"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 instead of adding "even though it does not matter whether Paul's teaching is in agreement with scripture or not", the text leaves that part out. But your suggestion is that we add it to scripture?
Hebrew Scriptures (Tanakh)

You could also add these verses. Don't tell me you think Jesus was referring to the Bible.


Luke 24:27 And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded to them in all the scriptures the things that were concerning him.

Luke 24:45 Then he opened their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures
 
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Someone posted a quote like this on a similar thread recently - quoting Raymond Brown.

Raymond E. Brown:

" Some Roman Catholics may have expected me to include a discussion of the historicity of the Immaculate Conception and the Assumption of Mary. But these Marian doctrines, which are not mentioned in Scripture, clearly lie outside my topic which was the quest for historical knowledge of Mary in the NT. Moreover, I would stress the ambiguity of the term “historicity” when applied to these two doctrines. A Roman Catholic must accept the two dogmas as true upon the authority of the teaching Church, but he does not have to hold that the dogmas are derived from a chain of historical information.
There is no evidence that Mary (or anyone else in NT times) knew that she was conceived free of original sin, especially since the concept of original sin did not fully exist in the first century. The dogma is not based upon information passed down by Mary or by the apostles;"​

Now I will continue the quote with parenthetical inserts - mine.

Raymond Brown continued:

"it is based on the Church’s insight (inference?, suggestion?) that the sinlessness of Jesus should have affected his origins, and hence his mother, as well."​
(i.e. the sinlessness of Jesus should have affected the origin/birth of his mother)​
"Nor does a Catholic have to think that the people gathered for her funeral saw Mary assumed into heaven—there is no reliable historical tradition to that effect, and the dogma does not even specify that Mary died. Once again the doctrine stems from the Church’s insight (inference, suggestion) about the application of the fruits of redemption to the leading disciple: Mary has gone before us, anticipating our common fate. Raymond E. Brown, Biblical Reflections on Crises facing the Church (New York: Paulist Press, 1975), p. 105, fn. 103.​
==========================

Isn't it interesting that the very key points where non Catholics differ with Catholic Marian doctrine - are the ones that Catholic scholars such as Brown - admit are not found in the Bible, and have no historicity in origin as if NT saints saw or wrote about such things?

In other words - logically - one must first BE a member of the Catholic church to then believe certain doctrines that have no source in the NT text or historic record from reliable first century sources.

Good day, Bob

I would say one would have to accept the name it claim it fallacy of the Roman denomination before one could agree to be a member.

In Him,

Bill
 
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Bob Crowley

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References to the Assumption of Mary would now seem to have written references dating back to the third century.


A Final Thought

Since the time of the promulgation of the dogma of the Assumption of Mary, there has been much new discovery. We now have written evidence of belief in the Assumption of Mary as far back as the third century. Though it is not necessary for there to be written evidence all the way back to the second century for us as Catholics because we have Sacred Tradition and Sacred Scripture as interpreted by the Magisterium of the Church first and foremost that has already given us the truth of the Matter, I believe it is really exciting that new historical discoveries continue to be made and once again . . . and again . . . and again, they confirm the Faith of our Fathers.

The church's statements on the Assumption of Mary and the Immaculate Conception didn't appear out of a vacuum. They were based on earlier traditions - very early traditions.

The Gospels themselves were traditions at one stage until the CHURCH canonised them. The same church also declared the Assumption of Mary and the Immaculate Conception are worthy of belief.


An implicit reference can also be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary in Luke 1:28: “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you.” The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. This word represents the proper name of the person being addressed by the angel, and it therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates a perfection of grace that is both intensive and extensive.

This means that the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit, and was not only as “full” or strong or complete as possible at any given time, but it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence to have been called “full of grace.”
My old Protestant pastor commented about Marian apparitions that "There's been a lot of them" and "I think they're a judgment on a divided church".

Apparently BobRyan thinks the church should stay divided. If so, where did the authority come from to divide the church in the first place, when Christ set it up on Peter and expected us to be one as the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are one? I haven't seen any reference to that authority in the Bible.
 
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Jipsah

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The implication of those observations by Brown - - is that we could not have a basis for discussing such doctrines outside of the Catholic church since anyone outside the church would have no logical basis for supposing the doctrines are true.
That's klind of Like SDAs and their "Investigative Judgement" thing, init? I mean, it's without any Scriptural basis at all as well, innit?

People who live in glass houses...
 
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Jipsah

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"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 -- which apparently some people think is not in the Bible.
It's in the Bible. It does not say, as you'd have us read it, that there is nothing other than Scripture to be considered, does it? Even SDAs follow the Canon of Scripture that is based solely on Holy Tradition, don't they? Oh, I know, "But that's different!" Sure it is. It's a bit of Tradition that you like, is the difference.
"there is no basis for discussion because some believe in Sola Scriptura" turn out the Bible does teach that
Really? Sounds very Phariseeical, doesn't it? Good reason to reject God Himself when He comes to walk with us, doesn't it?
- but even so - "the discussion" ends as soon as you claim that your doctrine is not in the Bible and does not have the historicity of being taught by any reliable first century NT church source, as your own Catholic scholar does in the OP.
You mean like Investigative Judgement, right?
just stating the obvious at that point.
Ditto. Physician, heal thyself.
 
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The Liturgist

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"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 -- which apparently some people think is not in the Bible.

We are not instructed to do likewise. Conversely, we are instructed to adhere to tradition, for example, in 2 Thessalonians 2:15, and praised for adhering to it in 1 Corinthians 11:2, and instructed to excommunicate those who violate the Gospel St. Paul has traditioned to us in Galatians 1:8-9.
 
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The Liturgist

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Also @BobRyan there is the problem that the radical version of Nuda Scriptura you advocate clashes with Sola Scriptura as defined by Martin Luther, as our most pious and excellent friend @MarkRohfrietsch can attest, a definition received by Anglicans and traditional Methodists (see the Anglican tripod and the Wesleyan quadrilateral), and in that system, tradition is acceptable as long as it does not contradict with Scripture.

Also, it is worth considering that the SDA subtly yet strongly discourages members from interpreting Scripture in a manner contrary to how Ellen G. White interpreted Scripture, by promoting her to the unprecedented title of “The Spirit of Prophecy” and teaching members that her writings are inspired prophecy, the SDA is doing precisely what the Orthodox and Roman Catholics and other churches with a dogmatic tradition, such as Lutherans, Anglicans and Methodists do, albeit on a more restrictive scale, since you teach that you believe in an extreme form of Sola Scriptura, but then argue that Ellen G. White, through her inspired prophecy, was entirely consistent with Scripture, which seems to be an untenable position, considering the fact that most Christians who have sat down with the Bible and set aside tradition, for example, Karl Barth, have produced interpretations of scripture radically different from that of Ellen G. White, and much closer to those of the traditional liturgical churches such as the Orthodox, Catholics, Lutherans, Anglicans, Methodists, etc.

Concordantly, it is difficult to regard the SDA as a Sola Scriptura denomination on a par with Baptists or Calvinists of the Karl Barth school of thought given that you not only have a Magisterium, but that Magisterium is elevated to the level of inspired prophecy. I believe our mutual friend @tall73 (or was it @Adventist Heretic ? I cannot recall) has made a similar argument to that made by our Anglican friend @Jipsah in this thread, and by myself in this post and in several others.
 
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The Liturgist

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References to the Assumption of Mary would now seem to have written references dating back to the third century.




The church's statements on the Assumption of Mary and the Immaculate Conception didn't appear out of a vacuum. They were based on earlier traditions - very early traditions.

The Gospels themselves were traditions at one stage until the CHURCH canonised them. The same church also declared the Assumption of Mary and the Immaculate Conception are worthy of belief.



My old Protestant pastor commented about Marian apparitions that "There's been a lot of them" and "I think they're a judgment on a divided church".

Apparently BobRyan thinks the church should stay divided. If so, where did the authority come from to divide the church in the first place, when Christ set it up on Peter and expected us to be one as the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are one? I haven't seen any reference to that authority in the Bible.

Indeed, the focus should be on ecumenical reconciliation, which is what I am always pushing for on ChristianForums. I have even outlined approaches for the SDA church to cooperate on an ecumenical basis with more traditional churches, and how on CF this could be implemented in the relationship between Adventist members and members from other churches, but unfortunately no one has expressed any interest in these.
 
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BobRyan

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Also @BobRyan there is the problem that the radical version of Nuda Scriptura you advocate clashes with Sola Scriptura
false.

My version is seen in Acts 17:11 and in Mark 7:7-13.
And yours?
tradition is acceptable as long as it does not contradict with Scripture.
true - but it does not rise to the level of scripture even if you have a tradition of wearing red shoes to church and that does not contradict scripture --- it is not "scripture".
Also, it is worth considering that the SDA subtly yet strongly discourages members from interpreting Scripture in a manner contrary to how Ellen G. White interpreted Scripture
Also not true.
You are batting 1000

Ellen White opposed a number of things like the 7th day Sabbath, vegeterianism etc.

OR are you talking about something God told Ellen White??
, by promoting her to the unprecedented title of “The Spirit of Prophecy”
which we don't do.

She wrote a book titled Spirit of Prophecy.
Other people have written books title "The Trinity" etc -
that does not make them "the Trinity"

Be serious.

Now back to the actual topic - regarding the fact that Marian doctrine is declared not to be in the Bible AND not in the historicity of first century sources. And this is not something that only non-Catholic scholars notice - but as the OP shows (see page 1) - Catholic scholars also admit to the same fact.
 
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BobRyan

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Indeed, the focus should be on ecumenical reconciliation, which is what I am always pushing for on ChristianForums.
This thread is not focused on "ignoring details" it is focused on the fact that even Catholic scholars themselves admit that the Marian doctrines have no basis in scripture and have no historicity in the first century Christian church.
I have even outlined approaches for the SDA church to cooperate on an ecumenical basis
Indeed a thread titled "ideas for cooperating on an ecumenical basis" may well be interesting... but this thread - is not that thread.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
"they studied the scriptures daily TO SEE IF the things taught by the Apostle Paul WERE So" Acts 17:11 -- which apparently some people think is not in the Bible.
We are not instructed to do likewise.
Is it your claim that we should delete all the NT that is not followed by "go and do likewise"??? Seriously!!

Acts 17:11 they are blessed and praised by the author of Acts for doing what they did -- instead of "oh that is bad but we are not going to mention it".

Mark 7:7-13 is another great example of slam hammering tradition "sola scriptura".
 
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