View Full Version : Does anyone know Hebrew?
kiwiekat
14th September 2004, 06:08 PM
Someone told me that Hebrew scripture uses different words for "worship" when it talks about worship to the Father and worship to Jesus because Jesus isn't suppose to be worshipped. Is this true? I mean, I don't really believe her but since I don't know Hebrew, I hope someone else can clear this up for me.
Adammi
14th September 2004, 06:42 PM
Whoever told you is wrong.
This would involve Greek, because Jesus himself isn't mentioned in The OT.
Proskuneo- This word (translated as worship)
Matt. 4:10 Commands to Proskuneo (worship) the LORD your God and him only. That same word is used in Heb. 1:6 which says that God THE FATHER commanded that the angels Proskuneo (worship) Jesus.
I Pray that this helps!!
kiwiekat
14th September 2004, 06:54 PM
Thanks. I told her about the Greek word, but she said that in Hebrew they used a-vadh for worship to the Father, and hish-ta-chawah for Jesus. She said a-vadh only refers to the Father. Is that true?
So in Hebrew manuscript, is there an NT, and what word does it use for worship?
Adammi
14th September 2004, 07:25 PM
I am getting at it wait just a min.
Adammi
14th September 2004, 07:37 PM
Well I find nothing on Hebrew in the NT. What is their problem with the Greek. The New Testament was not written in Hebrew. When St. Matt. was inspired to write Matt. 4:10 the Holy Spirit of Almighty God used the word Proscuneo. Likewise when he inspired St. Paul to write Heb 1:6, the Almighty Soveriegn Creator of the Universe said, "Let all of the Angels Proscuneo him!!!"
Just Pray for this person, I think that the root of this is that they do not believe( or don't understand) The trinity.
If you can in the Future get your hands on a Strong's Concordance, that's waht I use for My Hebrew and greek (i don't speak it)) they are sold At Wal mart!!!
kiwiekat
14th September 2004, 08:58 PM
Thank you very much! I will let her know.
ZiSunka
14th September 2004, 09:38 PM
Jesus IS God. Why wouldn't he be worshipped??
Crazy Liz
14th September 2004, 09:59 PM
Have you tried asking this question on the Messianic (http://www.christianforums.com/forumdisplay.php?s=&daysprune=30&f=34) forum?
I'm sure there are people there who would better understand what your friend was saying.
If you need help over there, I'm sure Pastor George (Nehemiah_Center) who belongs to that forum and this one, can help you.
ZiSunka
14th September 2004, 10:08 PM
Thanks. I told her about the Greek word, but she said that in Hebrew they used a-vadh for worship to the Father, and hish-ta-chawah for Jesus. She said a-vadh only refers to the Father. Is that true?
So in Hebrew manuscript, is there an NT, and what word does it use for worship?
Since the NT was not originally in Hebrew, you have to go to the Greek NT for the real meanings of the words. An Interlinear Bible would help you with that. I'll see if I can find mine...
Okay, here's what I found...
In Matthew 2:3 The Magi are going to find Christ to worship him. The word is Strong's word 4352. It's refering specifically to Jesus.
In Matthew 4:10, it is discussing worship of the Father. It uses exactly the same word, 4352.
So your friend is wrong. Worship of Jesus and the Father are the same.
kiwiekat
15th September 2004, 05:19 PM
Thank you all! :)
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