Aethelsige
15th December 2003, 06:15 PM
In Acts 10 we have Peter recieving visions in order to change established Halakhah. There is no prohibition of entering a gentiles house in Torah that I am aware of. So we have here God going thru a process to change established halakhah. Now we know that the majority rejected this change and halakhah seems to require majorities to be altered. So either the halakhah was at that time it was changed or it wasn't. Can a majority of G-ds people overule Him. Or was this a break in the authoritative nature of halakhah?