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peschitta_enthusiast
17th August 2004, 02:53 AM
1. The Sabbath



To find out the importance of the Sabbath (the seventh day of the week), one need only choose a book from the Old or New Testaments. Few will argue the importance of observing the Sabbath in the Old Testament, but when it comes to the New Testament, there is no specific command to observe the Sabbath. At least, that’s what most of us think. Until we discover the truth about Hebrews chapter 4, particularly verse 9.



Hebrews 4:9



The KJV says: “There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God.”



This clearly says nothing of the Sabbath.



The NIV says: “There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God;”



This is getting complicated (by the way, just about every Greek-based English Bible reads like this, having either “rest” or “Sabbath rest”). Since Sabbath means rest, the NIV, NASB, ASV, RSV and many more are talking about a “rest rest”. Meanwhile, versions like the KJV and NKJV speak of a “rest”. This is all looking very suspicious, so let’s take a look at what the “original Greek” really says.



Both the Byzantine and Alexandrian texts use the word sabbatismoV . Not “Sabbath rest” or “rest rest”, but “sabbatismos”, the Sabbath. It should be a clear indicator of biased translator’s intentions, when the word for Sabbath is substituted for “rest” or “Sabbath rest’. While the corruption here stems from the English translators and not the Greek, we shall still examine what the Aramaic has to offer.



The Lamsa says: “It is therefore the duty of the people of God to keep the Sabbath.”



Lamsa may have the correct meaning of the verse here, in his translation from the Peshitta, but I will provide a more accurate translation.



The Peshitta says: 0hl0d hm9l wtb4ml wh Myq Nydm



This means: “Therefore the observing of the Sabbath remains for the people of God.”



Note: The word for “remains” can also mean “is established”.



Some may say that the Aramaic wtb4ml in Hebrews 4:9, is a verb meaning “resting” or “to rest”. This is false, as wtb4ml derives from the lexeme tb4 which is a verb, meaning “to observe the Sabbath”.



Now even if this point is conceded, many will say that the “people of God” does not refer to us “Gentiles”, but the “Hebrews”. That argument falls through as there were many Gentiles living among the Hebrews, to who this book was supposedly addressed. Furthermore, when examining history and Biblical prophecy, a great multitude of Europeans and European-based peoples are descendants of Hebrews (a topic for another time). Lastly, the Old Covenant was given to the Israelites, not the Hebrews (Israelites are Hebrews but not all Hebrews are necessarily Israelites, just as not all Semites are necessarily Israelites).



Yet more people will argue (without the slightest suspicion as to why biased translators tried to conceal the Sabbath in this verse) that the verse speaks of a “rest in Jesus”. Firstly, it is clear from the Aramaic original and even the Greek, that the verse speaks of the Sabbath. Secondly, don’t just believe the KJV that the preceding verse is speaking of Jesus:



KJV (Hebrews 4:8): “For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.”



The “Jesus” in verse 8, is none other than Joshua, son of Nun, successor to Moses! A little-known fact is that Jesus and Joshua are equivalent names (Jesus = Yeshu’ = Yehoshua = Joshua), so it is easy to understand how this misunderstanding arose.



But if “Yeshu’” can refer to Jesus, Son of Alaha, or Joshua, son of Nun, how can we be sure either way? Because the Aramaic, unlike the Greek, leaves no question. In verse 8, this figure is referred to as Jwn rb (w4y , which means “Joshua the son of Nun”. We know that Jesus was not the son of Nun (while we do know that Joshua was, as seen in many verses such as Joshua 1:1), so this verse clearly speaks of Moses’ successor.



While the Greek reads similarly to the Aramaic in verse 9, highlighting the bias and corruption of the translators (from Greek to English), the Greek does differ from the Aramaic in verse 8. While the Peshitta makes it clear that the figure is “Joshua the son of Nun”, the Byzantine and Alexandrian Greek texts speak of ihsouV , meaning Jesus or Joshua, omitting the crucial phrase “the son of Nun”.



Let’s take a look again at this crucial statement in Hebrews 4:9



“Therefore the observing of the Sabbath remains for the people of God.”



After reading Hebrews 4:9, it is good to say, “If a person is not a “person of God”, then they needn’t worry about observing the Sabbath”. In fact, they needn’t concern themselves with any part of the Bible. With so many scholars and academics adding to or changing God’s Word to conceal this message of the Sabbath in Hebrews 4:9, perhaps we should take notice.

For more on the Aramaic, my site with my free 300page book is http://www.peshitta.netfirms.com

I have more in-depth on Sabbath, also if you like to discuss.

Regards,

Chris

DanielRB
17th August 2004, 04:41 PM
1. The Sabbath

To find out the importance of the Sabbath (the seventh day of the week), one need only choose a book from the Old or New Testaments. Few will argue the importance of observing the Sabbath in the Old Testament, but when it comes to the New Testament, there is no specific command to observe the Sabbath. At least, that’s what most of us think. Until we discover the truth about Hebrews chapter 4, particularly verse 9.

Hebrews 4:9

The KJV says: “There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God.”

This clearly says nothing of the Sabbath.


Hi Peschitta, thanks for the post. :wave:

The KJV actually has in the margin (if you have a KJV with the original marginal notes) "keeping of a sabbath."

The NIV says: “There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God;”

This is getting complicated (by the way, just about every Greek-based English Bible reads like this, having either “rest” or “Sabbath rest”). Since Sabbath means rest, the NIV, NASB, ASV, RSV and many more are talking about a “rest rest”. Meanwhile, versions like the KJV and NKJV speak of a “rest”. This is all looking very suspicious, so let’s take a look at what the “original Greek” really says.

Both the Byzantine and Alexandrian texts use the word sabbatismoV . Not “Sabbath rest” or “rest rest”, but “sabbatismos”, the Sabbath. It should be a clear indicator of biased translator’s intentions, when the word for Sabbath is substituted for “rest” or “Sabbath rest’. While the corruption here stems from the English translators and not the Greek, we shall still examine what the Aramaic has to offer.

The Lamsa says: “It is therefore the duty of the people of God to keep the Sabbath.”

Lamsa may have the correct meaning of the verse here, in his translation from the Peshitta, but I will provide a more accurate translation.

The Peshitta says: 0hl0d hm9l wtb4ml wh Myq Nydm


This means: “Therefore the observing of the Sabbath remains for the people of God.”

Note: The word for “remains” can also mean “is established”.

Some may say that the Aramaic wtb4ml in Hebrews 4:9, is a verb meaning “resting” or “to rest”. This is false, as wtb4ml derives from the lexeme tb4 which is a verb, meaning “to observe the Sabbath”.

Now even if this point is conceded, many will say that the “people of God” does not refer to us “Gentiles”, but the “Hebrews”. That argument falls through as there were many Gentiles living among the Hebrews, to who this book was supposedly addressed.

I agree that a more accurate translation is "observing of the Sabbath." I also agree that there's a false dichotomy in saying it was just to Jewish believers and not believers in general.

Furthermore, when examining history and Biblical prophecy, a great multitude of Europeans and European-based peoples are descendants of Hebrews (a topic for another time).

A good topic for discussion--in another thread. I disagree in general with the hypothesis, but I am open to correction.


Lastly, the Old Covenant was given to the Israelites, not the Hebrews (Israelites are Hebrews but not all Hebrews are necessarily Israelites, just as not all Semites are necessarily Israelites).

Again, agreed.


Yet more people will argue (without the slightest suspicion as to why biased translators tried to conceal the Sabbath in this verse) that the verse speaks of a “rest in Jesus”. Firstly, it is clear from the Aramaic original and even the Greek, that the verse speaks of the Sabbath. Secondly, don’t just believe the KJV that the preceding verse is speaking of Jesus:

KJV (Hebrews 4:8): “For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.”

The “Jesus” in verse 8, is none other than Joshua, son of Nun, successor to Moses! A little-known fact is that Jesus and Joshua are equivalent names (Jesus = Yeshu’ = Yehoshua = Joshua), so it is easy to understand how this misunderstanding arose.

Again, a properly footnoted Bible will make it clear (as well as the context) that this is most likely Joshua the son of Nun.


But if “Yeshu’” can refer to Jesus, Son of Alaha, or Joshua, son of Nun, how can we be sure either way? Because the Aramaic, unlike the Greek, leaves no question. In verse 8, this figure is referred to as Jwn rb (w4y , which means “Joshua the son of Nun”. We know that Jesus was not the son of Nun (while we do know that Joshua was, as seen in many verses such as Joshua 1:1), so this verse clearly speaks of Moses’ successor.

This of course assumes that the Syriac P'Shitta is more accurate than the Greek. I know that you (and the Assyrians, among others) would argue that the Syriac is original, but that's another discussion. However, I believe the context itself already makes it clear.


While the Greek reads similarly to the Aramaic in verse 9, highlighting the bias and corruption of the translators (from Greek to English), the Greek does differ from the Aramaic in verse 8. While the Peshitta makes it clear that the figure is “Joshua the son of Nun”, the Byzantine and Alexandrian Greek texts speak of ihsouV , meaning Jesus or Joshua, omitting the crucial phrase “the son of Nun”.


See above. This depends on your view of which came first, the Greek or the Syriac.

Let’s take a look again at this crucial statement in Hebrews 4:9

“Therefore the observing of the Sabbath remains for the people of God.”



After reading Hebrews 4:9, it is good to say, “If a person is not a “person of God”, then they needn’t worry about observing the Sabbath”. In fact, they needn’t concern themselves with any part of the Bible. With so many scholars and academics adding to or changing God’s Word to conceal this message of the Sabbath in Hebrews 4:9, perhaps we should take notice.

The real question, though, is what this particular observing of the Sabbath is. Is it--

*The seventh-day Sabbath given in Torah?
*An "eighth day" Sabbath as many Sunday Sabbatarian believe?
*A Sabbath that differs from either one of these?

Again, I think that context is the key to understanding the answer to the question. Consider how the writer of Hebrews understands Psalm 95. He discusses those who were unfaithful in the Exodus, who perished in the wilderness before entering the promised land under Joshua. These individuals perished in the wilderness and did not "enter into My [God's] rest." The writer of Hebrews then exhorts his readers to "be diligent to enter into that rest (Heb 4:11).

Can the seventh-day Sabbath be the rest to which the Hebrew writer is discussing? That would assume that those who "did not enter into My [God's] rest" in Psalm 95:11 didn't enter into the seventh-day Sabbath. However, the Sabbath was given even before the ten commandments (in Exodus 16, though some would point to Genesis 2). Furthermore, if those who wandered in the wilderness didn't celebrate the seventh-day Sabbath, they were to be stoned (Numb 15:32ff). Furthermore, the writer of Hebrews speaks of the day being "today" (Heb 4:7; Psalm 95:7), which is hard to reconcile with a weekly Sabbath.

This day--"today"--was not the day which Joshua led the children of Israel into the promised land, either, according to the writer of Hebrews (Heb 4:8). Rather, it seems to be a Sabbath Observance which we are to strive to enter that is greater than the old Sabbath (which was a shadow of the reality in Christ in Col 2:17) and greater than entering the physical land of Canaan.

What is that rest? Perhaps it is found in the eternal kingdom, or living in the kingdom here and now. Regardless, I don't think the context would suggest that a literal continued observance of a Sabbath--either Seventh-day or Eighth-day--is what the writer of Hebrews has in mind.

In Christ,

Daniel



For more on the Aramaic, my site with my free 300page book is http://www.peshitta.netfirms.com (http://www.peshitta.netfirms.com/)

I have more in-depth on Sabbath, also if you like to discuss.

Regards,

Chris

Crispie
17th August 2004, 05:44 PM
4 For hespake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.
5 And in this place again, If they shall enter into my rest.
6 Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief:
11 Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.


Dunno, sounds like its talking about Heaven? This "place". It appears like only believers enter into this rest, and this rest is at a place.

Bizzlebin Imperatoris
17th August 2004, 11:08 PM
I will have agree with Daniel here. After all, it cannot mean a literal Sabbath in light of Colossians 2:

16Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ.

peschitta_enthusiast
18th August 2004, 08:05 AM
"which was a shadow of the reality in Christ in Col 2:17"

Was or IS? :)

The Aramaic makes clear more than the Greek. Seventh day being talked about. Sabbath is talked about. Observing talked about. Made clear that Joshua is son of Nun, not God (which Greek does not mention directly, leading to erroneous belief that this is "Jesus rest"). Yes, I do assume the Peshitta Aramaic is original to the Greek and you can see the MOUNDS of internal and external evidence in my free 300page book.

As extra, note how Jesus told Judeans to pray that the flight not be on the Sabbath. Also, He instructed us how better to observe it without denouncing it, unlike other things like "justified violence".

Regards,

Chris

Peguero
18th August 2004, 03:19 PM
I think we should look at the word Sabbath or rest not only as a literal word, but i just as in the OT it could mean "peace". A peace that man alone has not and will not achived. In my own personal experience i still observe the sabbath not as a day of rest, because we are no longer under that tutor, but as a day to worship him who rested on the seventh day. Our creator GOD.

DanielRB
18th August 2004, 06:30 PM
"which was a shadow of the reality in Christ in Col 2:17"

Was or IS? :)

The Aramaic makes clear more than the Greek. Seventh day being talked about. Sabbath is talked about. Observing talked about. Made clear that Joshua is son of Nun, not God (which Greek does not mention directly, leading to erroneous belief that this is "Jesus rest"). Yes, I do assume the Peshitta Aramaic is original to the Greek and you can see the MOUNDS of internal and external evidence in my free 300page book.

As extra, note how Jesus told Judeans to pray that the flight not be on the Sabbath. Also, He instructed us how better to observe it without denouncing it, unlike other things like "justified violence".

Regards,

Chris
Hi Peschitta, thanks for your post. :wave:

I would be interested in your understanding of Col 2:16 & 17.

If you will note, I do not dispute that the "Jesus" spoken about was Joshua, not Jesus Christ. Yet it's clear that Joshua didn't give the rest, and there was still a rest to be entered, and Israel had been observing Sabbath for at least 40 years before entry into Canaan--so what was that rest? What was that Sabbath? The Seventh-Day Sabbath doesn't fit the context. For example, see if this makes sense:

"Take care, brethren, that there not be in any one of you an evil, unbelieving heart that falls away from the living God. But encourage one another day after day, as long as it is still called “Today,” so that none of you will be hardened by the deceitfulness of sin. For we have become partakers of Christ, if we hold fast the beginning of our assurance firm until the end, while it is said, “Today if you hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts, as when they provoked Me.” For who provoked Him when they had heard? Indeed, did not all those who came out of Egypt led by Moses? And with whom was He angry for forty years? Was it not with those who sinned, whose bodies fell in the wilderness? And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His seventh day sabbath, but to those who were disobedient? So we see that they were not able to enter the seventh day sabbath because of unbelief. Therefore, let us fear if, while a promise remains of entering His seventh day sabbath, any one of you may seem to have come short of it. For indeed we have had good news preached to us, just as they also; but the word they heard did not profit them, because it was not united by faith in those who heard. For we who have believed enter that seventh day sabbath, just as He has said, “As I swore in My wrath, They shall not enter My seventh day sabbath,” although His works were finished from the foundation of the world. For He has said somewhere concerning the seventh day: “And God rested on the seventh day from all His works”; and again in this passage, “They shall not enter My seventh day sabbath.” Therefore, since it remains for some to enter it, and those who formerly had good news preached to them failed to enter because of disobedience, He again fixes a certain day, “Today,” saying through David after so long a time just as has been said before, “Today if you hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts.” For if Joshua had given them the seventh day sabbath, He would not have spoken of another day after that. So there remains a seventh day sabbath for the people of God. For the one who has entered His seventh day sabbath has himself also rested from his works, as God did from His. Therefore let us be diligent to enter that seventh day sabbath, so that no one will fall, through following the same example of disobedience. For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are open and laid bare to the eyes of Him with whom we have to do. " (Hebrews 3:12-4:13, NASB95; my substitutions in bold italic)
[1] (http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&p=8865571#_ftnCitation)
[1] (http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&p=8865571#_ftnrefCitation) New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995. LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.

Clearly, the author is talking about something other than the seventh day sabbath. I believe the seventh day sabbath is a symbol of what is being discussed here, but there's something more that it's symbolizing. The above substitutions (changing "rest" for "seventh day sabbath") create a nonsensical passage.

In Christ,

Daniel

peschitta_enthusiast
18th August 2004, 08:27 PM
Thankyou for your polite discussion. Note that the Aramaic makes issue clear. The Aramaic lexeme of wtb4ml means to observe the Sabbath, and the root of the word has Sabbath and week as its meanings. I see in that passage a very clear message of Sabbath in the past, present and future.

As for Colossians,

"These are shadows of things to come
"

To use that as anti-Sabbath verse is not justified. Yeshua kept and taught us to observe the Sabbath, and Paul confirmed it.

Regards,

Chris

DanielRB
19th August 2004, 06:57 AM
Thankyou for your polite discussion. Note that the Aramaic makes issue clear. The Aramaic lexeme of wtb4ml means to observe the Sabbath, and the root of the word has Sabbath and week as its meanings. I see in that passage a very clear message of Sabbath in the past, present and future.

As for Colossians,

"These are shadows of things to come
"

To use that as anti-Sabbath verse is not justified. Yeshua kept and taught us to observe the Sabbath, and Paul confirmed it.

Regards,

Chris
Hello again, Peschitta! :wave:

I appreciate your polite tone as well. :)

I agree that Colossians 2:17 shouldn't be used as an anti-Sabbath verse. Indeed, I think the very nature of the verse speaks against having an anti-Sabbath stance, for it says:

"Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath. These are a shadow of the things to come, but the substance belongs to Christ." (Colossians 2:16-17, ESV)
[1] (http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&p=8873135#_ftnCitation)
[1] (http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&p=8873135#_ftnrefCitation) The Holy Bible : English standard version. 2001. Wheaton: Standard Bible Society.

To be anti-Sabbath would be to pass judgment regarding the Sabbath. But as Paul writes elsewhere, this is not a proper attitude:

"One person esteems one day as better than another, while another esteems all days alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind. The one who observes the day, observes it in honor of the Lord. The one who eats, eats in honor of the Lord, since he gives thanks to God, while the one who abstains, abstains in honor of the Lord and gives thanks to God. For none of us lives to himself, and none of us dies to himself. If we live, we live to the Lord, and if we die, we die to the Lord. So then, whether we live or whether we die, we are the Lord’s. For to this end Christ died and lived again, that he might be Lord both of the dead and of the living." (Romans 14:5-9, ESV)
[1] (http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&p=8873135#_ftnCitation)
[1] (http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&p=8873135#_ftnrefCitation) The Holy Bible : English standard version. 2001. Wheaton: Standard Bible Society.

To look down upon someone for observing the Sabbath is clearly against the Bible. At the same time, I believe it is equally clear that it is wrong to judge someone for not keeping the seventh-day (or eigth-day) sabbath.

I believe the context of Hebrews 3-4 clearly indicates that a rest greater than just the seventh-day sabbath is in view here. Yes, the author of Hebrews talks about the Sabbath in Heb 4:4 & 4:9, and it is clearly a reference back to the seventh-day Sabbath of which the original readers would be familiar. But it is also something more, as I hope my substitution in the above post indicated.

By all means, if celebrating the Sabbath brings you closer to God, and if you feel a conviction to celebrate it, then do so! I rejoice that God has given this symbol for you to experience His rest! But I also believe that it would be wrong to judge those who are not so convicted, based upon the Scriptures.

In Christ,

Daniel

peschitta_enthusiast
19th August 2004, 08:48 AM
Interesting issues we have now.

1) You see that passage as you see it. I see it that the 7-th day Sabbath is being spoken of as important and symbolic, in the past, present and future.

2) Indeed, if it pleases you to honour the God-given gift of the Sabbath, do so! It pleases me well. I have been able to write much of my book on the Sabbath. And nowhere I say that if you don't honour the Sabbath you go to Hell... I just like to inform people that they should watch for the vain traditions of man. Like "Sunday worship" which is never shown in the Bible by Judeans or Christians. All we here in the whole Bible is Sabbath this Sabbath that. So, why emulate pagan religions, when you can emulate the people of God. Each to his own. Do note however the great corruption the Greek text has by omitting "son of Nun" in reference to THAT Joseph/Jesus. I see that as no coincidence... Someone was trying to hide the Sabbath from Western Christians. Eastern Christians however held onto the Sabbath longer, with that verse. The Church of the East for instance used to be Sabbath-keeping. Then they conceded to the RCC and are Sunday-keepers and have celibacy of higher clergy too.

peschitta_enthusiast
19th August 2004, 08:50 AM
Yes, you are true that that verse does not refute Sabbath. It says something in the Aramaic like "let nobody make problems with you about the Sabbath days" etc. Exactly what the RCC did to Christians who kept the Sabbath.

DanielRB
19th August 2004, 06:32 PM
Interesting issues we have now.

1) You see that passage as you see it. I see it that the 7-th day Sabbath is being spoken of as important and symbolic, in the past, present and future.

2) Indeed, if it pleases you to honour the God-given gift of the Sabbath, do so! It pleases me well. I have been able to write much of my book on the Sabbath. And nowhere I say that if you don't honour the Sabbath you go to Hell... I just like to inform people that they should watch for the vain traditions of man. Like "Sunday worship" which is never shown in the Bible by Judeans or Christians. All we here in the whole Bible is Sabbath this Sabbath that. So, why emulate pagan religions, when you can emulate the people of God. Each to his own. Do note however the great corruption the Greek text has by omitting "son of Nun" in reference to THAT Joseph/Jesus. I see that as no coincidence... Someone was trying to hide the Sabbath from Western Christians. Eastern Christians however held onto the Sabbath longer, with that verse. The Church of the East for instance used to be Sabbath-keeping. Then they conceded to the RCC and are Sunday-keepers and have celibacy of higher clergy too.
Hi again, Peschitta! :wave:

I think it's important to remember that there are three, not two, points of view here on the Sabbath (and perhaps more):

(1) The Sabbath is Saturday, and should be observed according to the Ten Commandments
(2) The Sabbath is Sunday, but otherwise should be observed according to the Ten Commandments
(3) Christians no longer need to observe a literal Sabbath, not on Saturday, Sunday or any other day

I'm of viewpoint (3). I assume you're of viewpoint (1). I don't see how this should interfere with our relationship as brothers in Christ, though. :) As long as we are faithful to what God calls us to, it's all good.

I don't think it's fair, though, to say that Sunday worship is done to emulate pagan worship. It's done to honor Christ's resurrection on the first day of the week. I also don't see how omitting "son of Nun" tries to hide the Sabbath from western Christians. Anyone familiar with the context of Hebrews 4 and Psalm 95 will see that it is Joshua, son of Nun.

In Christ,

Daniel

Bizzlebin Imperatoris
19th August 2004, 07:23 PM
peschitta_enthusiast, who wrote the book of Wisdom?

peschitta_enthusiast
19th August 2004, 09:42 PM
"I also don't see how omitting "son of Nun" tries to hide the Sabbath from western Christians. Anyone familiar with the context of Hebrews 4 and Psalm 95 will see that it is Joshua, son of Nun.
"

Actually, there are many people who use that and say, this is the "rest of Jesus", not the Sabbath. The Aramaic makes clear that it isn't Jesus but Joshua, successor to Moses.