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@@Paul@@
12th August 2004, 02:02 PM
Could someone please explain what exactly the house of Israel is? I'm inclined to believe it is NOT a reference to the entire nation of Israel.

Mat 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

........But i really have no Idea. :)

CharlesYTK
12th August 2004, 09:05 PM
Could someone please explain what exactly the house of Israel is? I'm inclined to believe it is NOT a reference to the entire nation of Israel.


Mat 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

........But i really have no Idea. :)
From David Sterns Comentary:

"24 I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Yeshua’s personal mission prior to his death and resurrection was only to the Jews, God’s people. After the Holy Spirit was given, the Gospel would reach Gentiles even in "the farthest parts of the earth" (Ac 1:8), who would be grafted into Israel through the Messiah (Ro 11:16–24)."

I agree with this. That is what he was sent to do. However this did not prevent him from willingly helping even the Gentile who came to him during this time. I think this is because he knew that the Gentiles were to be brought in in a big way. It was propheied in the Tanahk in a number of places. It is one of the features of the Kingdom which he was ushering in.

Paul takes somewhat the same approach as Yeshua. While his ministry was directed to the Gentiles he still made a point of witnessing to the Jews first and states that all things are "To the Jews first and to the Gentiles also."

Hope this is what you are looking for.

Charles

@@Paul@@
12th August 2004, 09:14 PM
Thanks CharlesYTK,

So, the House of Israel is the entire nation.... i.e. all twelve tribes?

........ I thought I read once that could have been a reference to the Jews which stayed in (or near) Jerusalem (not of the diaspora).

CharlesYTK
13th August 2004, 07:11 AM
By the time of these events, Israel was a real well mixed bunch with peoples from all the different tribes living in all areas. There was probably a higher concentration of Judah and Levi because of connections to the Jerusalem temple, but still mixed.

muffler dragon
13th August 2004, 08:56 AM
Dear Paul:

I got your PM regarding this OP.

To be honest with you, I see nowhere in all of Scripture that there is a distinction between house and nation of Israel. It's just like when the Scripture's speak of the House of David. It's an all-encompassing statement regarding David and his family. Therefore, House of Israel can also be seen as all-encompassing regarding Israel.

Nathan

G4m
13th August 2004, 09:53 AM
Could someone please explain what exactly the house of Israel is? I'm inclined to believe it is NOT a reference to the entire nation of Israel.




Mat 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

........But i really have no Idea. :)I believe the house of Israel are ten tribes of Israel and the house of Judah the tribe of Judah plus one other tribe.

1 Kings 11
31 And he said to Jeroboam, Take thee ten pieces: for thus saith the LORD, the God of Israel, Behold, I will rend the kingdom out of the hand of Solomon, and will give ten tribes to thee:
32 (But he shall have one tribe for my servant David's sake, and for Jerusalem's sake, the city which I have chosen out of all the tribes of Israel: )
33 Because that they have forsaken me, and have worshipped Ashtoreth the goddess of the Zidonians, Chemosh the god of the Moabites, and Milcom the god of the children of Ammon, and have not walked in my ways, to do that which is right in mine eyes, and to keep my statutes and my judgments, as did David his father.
34 Howbeit I will not take the whole kingdom out of his hand: but I will make him prince all the days of his life for David my servant's sake, whom I chose, because he kept my commandments and my statutes:
35 But I will take the kingdom out of his son's hand, and will give it unto thee, even ten tribes.
36 And unto his son will I give one tribe, that David my servant may have a light alway before me in Jerusalem, the city which I have chosen me to put my name there.

12 tribes in two houses:

1 Kings 12
21 And when Rehoboam was come to Jerusalem, he assembled all the house of Judah, with the tribe of Benjamin, an hundred and fourscore thousand chosen men, which were warriors, to fight against the house of Israel, to bring the kingdom again to Rehoboam the son of Solomon.

Jeremiah 31
31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

Ezekiel 37
16 Moreover, thou son of man, take thee one stick, and write upon it, For Judah, and for the children of Israel his companions: then take another stick, and write upon it, For Joseph, the stick of Ephraim and for all the house of Israel his companions:

@@Paul@@
13th August 2004, 04:09 PM
OK, thanks everyone. :)

Netzari5730
13th August 2004, 10:47 PM
Depending on the context of the scripture, there is a difference between the House of Yis'rael and the Nation of Yis'rael Proper. And depending on the context there is no difference. Jeremiah 31 is a perfect example for understanding this:

31 Behold, the days come, says YHVH, that I will cut a new covenant with the house of Yis'rael (The Northern Kingdom) and with the house of Y'hudah (The Southern Kingdom),

This is referring to the tribes in their division between the Northen Kingdom (Yis'rael) and the Southern Kingdom (Y'hudah). Showing that the Northern Kingdom was referred to as the House of Yis'rael apart from Y'hudah, the Southern Kingdom.

32 not according to the covenant that I cut with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of the Mitz'rayim (which covenant of Mine they broke, although I was a husband to them, says YHVH).
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will cut with the house of Yis'rael (The Kingdoms united): After those days, declares YHVH, I will put My Torah in their inward parts, and I will write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.

This refers to the Two Kingdoms united again, which will be called the House of Yis'rael, which is the name of the original Nation from its very beginning.

In Yeshua...
Netzari5730

Sephania
14th August 2004, 03:30 PM
Netzari which version are you using that says "cut"?

:)

@@Paul@@
14th August 2004, 04:08 PM
Depending on the context of the scripture, there is a difference between the House of Yis'rael and the Nation of Yis'rael Proper. And depending on the context there is no difference. Jeremiah 31 is a perfect example for understanding this:

31 Behold, the days come, says YHVH, that I will cut a new covenant with the house of Yis'rael (The Northern Kingdom) and with the house of Y'hudah (The Southern Kingdom),

This is referring to the tribes in their division between the Northen Kingdom (Yis'rael) and the Southern Kingdom (Y'hudah). Showing that the Northern Kingdom was referred to as the House of Yis'rael apart from Y'hudah, the Southern Kingdom.

32 not according to the covenant that I cut with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of the Mitz'rayim (which covenant of Mine they broke, although I was a husband to them, says YHVH).
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will cut with the house of Yis'rael (The Kingdoms united): After those days, declares YHVH, I will put My Torah in their inward parts, and I will write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.

This refers to the Two Kingdoms united again, which will be called the House of Yis'rael, which is the name of the original Nation from its very beginning.

In Yeshua...
Netzari5730
Thanks Netzari5730, So since the New Covenant had yet to unite the two houses,,, is it possible that the references in the Matthew refer to the Northern Tribes only?

Just so everyone know WHY i'm asking:
I'm only wondering because it appears, If Christ was sent to all Israel (both houses), it doesn't look like He went to all Israel (only the house of Israel)...... but i believe Peter continued this ministry to "all nations" - North and South - during the Acts.

The Kingdom was only "at hand" during the gospel as the King had yet to lay down His life,, after which Peter could then actually offer the Kingdom - the the nation.

Thank for the help AND sharing your thoughts... :)

Netzari5730
14th August 2004, 04:27 PM
Netzari which version are you using that says "cut"?

:)It's fromt he J.P. Green Interlinear Bible coupled with personal translating of the Hebrew Text;)

In Yeshua...
Netzari5730

Netzari5730
14th August 2004, 04:43 PM
Thanks Netzari5730, So since the New Covenant had yet to unite the two houses,,, is it possible that the references in the Matthew refer to the Northern Tribes only?





Just so everyone know WHY i'm asking:I'm only wondering because it appears, If Christ was sent to all Israel (both houses), it doesn't look like He went to all Israel (only the house of Israel)...... but i believe Peter continued this ministry to "all nations" - North and South - during the Acts.



The Kingdom was only "at hand" during the gospel as the King had yet to lay down His life,, after which Peter could then actually offer the Kingdom - the the nation.



Thank for the help AND sharing your thoughts... :)Well, the problem is, that the House of Yis'rael (Northern Kingdom) no longer existed. Yeshua ministered to those of the House of Y'hudah (Southern Kingdom), which was the remnant of the House of Yis'rael (The Nation/People of Yis'rael).

I am of the opinion that the New Covenant is still in the works, so-to-speak. Jeremiah 31 speaks of both Houses being reunited which hasn't happened yet, though the cutting of the covenant, being the shedding of blood, has already commenced. Our part in this New Covenant is to simply Believe and receive our Mashi'ach's atoning sacrifice and to do and hear is commandments. He does the rest. One of the things He will bring about is that which Paul spoke of: "all Yis'rael will be saved", which will bring about the reuniting of the two Houses, hence "all Yis'rael".

In Yeshua...
Netzari5730

@@Paul@@
14th August 2004, 04:47 PM
Well, the problem is, that the House of Yis'rael (Northern Kingdom) no longer existed. Yeshua ministered to those of the House of Y'hudah (Southern Kingdom), which was the remnant of House of Yis'rael (The Nation/People of Yis'rael).

I am of the opinion that the New Covenant is still in the works, so-to-speak. Jeremiah 31 speaks of both Houses being reunited which hasn't happened yet, though the cutting of the covenant, being the shedding of blood, has already commenced. Our part in this New Covenant is to simply Believe and receive our Mashi'ach's atoning sacrifice and do do and hear is commandments. He does the rest. One of the things He will bring about is that which Paul spoke of: "all Yis'rael will be saved", which will bring about the reuniting of the two Houses, hence "all Yis'rael".

In Yeshua...
Netzari5730
Thanks again... :)

G4m
14th August 2004, 05:08 PM
Thanks Netzari5730, So since the New Covenant had yet to unite the two houses,,, is it possible that the references in the Matthew refer to the Northern Tribes only?



Just so everyone know WHY i'm asking:I'm only wondering because it appears, If Christ was sent to all Israel (both houses), it doesn't look like He went to all Israel (only the house of Israel)...... but i believe Peter continued this ministry to "all nations" - North and South - during the Acts.


The Kingdom was only "at hand" during the gospel as the King had yet to lay down His life,, after which Peter could then actually offer the Kingdom - the the nation.


Thank for the help AND sharing your thoughts... :)
Hi @@Paul@@,

notice though that Jesus' disciples were Jewish; from the house of Judah. Whilst the house of Israel were scattered.

@@Paul@@
14th August 2004, 05:45 PM
Hi @@Paul@@,

notice though that Jesus' disciples were Jewish; from the house of Judah. Whilst the house of Israel were scattered.
:doh: Just when i thought i had it all figured out. ;)

There still must have been two houses at the time of Christ, seeing they will not be united until the whole New Covenant is in effect. - so...

Could someone explain the difference (or provide a good web site link) of the two houses and where they were located... possibly in contrast to those of the "Diaspora" as I always thought the Diaspora refered to people from both houses scattered among the Gentile nations...

.........He did refer to the "lost" sheep - of the house of Israel.

debi b
17th August 2004, 12:20 PM
Netzari which version are you using that says "cut"?

I don't know what version he was using.

These are the versions that use "make"
NLT NKJV NASB RSV ASV NIV CJB

However, the text in Jerimiah does indeed use the word cut trk.