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visionary
1st March 2008, 07:36 PM
Have you come across an explanation for the discrepancy in Mark 2:26 where Yeshua mentions Abiathar as High Priest when in I Samuel 21:1-6 Ahimelech is said to be high priest (until he is killed later on where Abiathar replaces him but it is still after the incident with David and the Bread of the Presence)?

Lulav
2nd March 2008, 03:34 AM
Have you come across an explanation for the discrepancy in Mark 2:26 where Yeshua mentions Abiathar as High Priest when in I Samuel 21:1-6 Ahimelech is said to be high priest (until he is killed later on where Abiathar replaces him but it is still after the incident with David and the Bread of the Presence)?

I don't see a discrepancy. You are comparing two books translated from two languages. I think therein lies the problem.

1 Sam 21:2 says that David went to see Achimekech , which btw, means brother of the King. It doesn't say he was the high priest, only the priest or Cohen. It does not say in Hebrew, Cohen haGadol.

Whereas the Greek of Mark states he ( Abiathar, which means Father of Abundance) is translated using the Greek word meaning chief priest or high priest, Archiereus.


So David could very well have been meeting with one of the priests, but not necessarily the High Priest.

johnd
2nd March 2008, 07:26 AM
Excellent reply, Lulav!

Or it may have been a copyist error in Mark akin to the even more rare errors found in the Tanakh...

Genesis 14:14 And when Abram heard that his brother was taken captive, he armed his trained servants, born in his own house, three hundred and eighteen, and pursued them unto Dan.

Lachish would not become Dan until at least a generation after Moses died. The scribe who mindlessly copied "Dan" where the text said "Lachish" goofed, or the scribe who tried to "help the text along" if one did so, didn't do God any favors (as Abraham, Sarah, and Hagar found out the hard way). God doesn't need out meddlesome help... it only creates troubles or silly doctrines like Elohist versus Yahwist schools of thought as to who or what wrote the Torah...

Moses was the scribe God dictated the Torah to.

Henaynei
2nd March 2008, 09:01 PM
no discrepancy:

the Ahimelek in 1Sam was a priest, not *the* High priest

this took place in Nob, a town of priests, not in Jerusalem (Nob:a priestly city in the Benjamin region situated on some eminence north but near Jerusalem)

further proof this was not the same as Jerusalem is in 1Sam 22 were Saul puts *every* resident, from all the priests to their wives to the infants to the sword in Nob for assisting David ...

Ahimeleck was a priest, and the father of the High priest, Abiathar

I can't find anywhere in 1/2Sam or 1/2Kings or 1/2Chron where it says WHO was High Priest in that time - if Yeshua said Abiathar was I believe him ;)

Lulav
2nd March 2008, 11:11 PM
Well, what I said has been seconded so it must be true! :D