Titus Ch2

[IHaveQuestions]

Can you explain Titus Ch 2 especially verse 11

GNB Titus 2:11 For God has revealed his grace for the salvation of all people.

GW Titus 2:11 After all, God's saving kindness has appeared for the benefit of all people.

KJV Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,

[tigersnare]

As my pastor likes to drill in my head....context, context, context. ;)

[Cal]

Can you explain Titus Ch 2 especially verse 11

KJV Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,

Sure, Paul is writing to Titus on how to exhort believers in the churches in Crete. Look at the verses immediately preceeding your verse. Paul is writing to Titus to "speak the things which become sound doctrine: that the aged men be sober, aged women likewise, that young women be sober, that young men likewise be sober minded, and that servants be obedient unto their own masters etc.

This is the "all men" that Paul is referring too, it is simply all "types" of believers. Believers included men (people) from all walks of life old men, old women, young men, young women and even servants. Paul is simply saying God is saving all types of people form all walks of life.

You might have a similar question about this verse as well;

1TI 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

Of course, just like the verses you questioned in Titus and 2 Peter you have to see how the words are being used in context and who the letter is being written too and why.

In the verses immediately preceeding this verse Paul is instructing Timothy on how to run the church at Ephesus and Paul says, "First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men."

And then Paul immediately defines what he means by "all men," he says "for kings and all who are in authority, so that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity." Paul is simply stating that we should pray for "all types" of men in every station and vocation of life and leave none out of our prayers just because of their station.

Paul is saying God is not prejudice against even the incredibly evil rulers and those in authority of Rome, that God's elect is even among these wicked Roman rulers and others in authority.

God is no respector of persons.

You can see the way Paul and the Holy Spirit use the word "all men" and that it is impossible that they meant every single peron on planet earth at that time. First of all God's salvation had not appeared to every single person on earth yet (Titus), and the believers at Ephesus could never have been expected to pray for every single person on earth.

These verses simply mean "all types" of men (people) in every walk of life, therefore to imply that they mean every single person to ever have lived on earth is to do much damage to the intent of the writers.

[LynneClomina]

all = "pas"

1. individually
........a. each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
2. collectively
........a. some of all types
... "the whole world has gone after him" Did all the world go afterChrist? "then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan."Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in Jordan? "Ye are of God,little children", and the whole world lieth in the wicked one". Doesthe whole world there mean everybody? The words "world" and "all" areused in some seven or eight senses in Scripture, and it is veryrarely the "all" means all persons, taken individually. The words aregenerally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts-- some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has notrestricted His redemption to either Jew or Gentile ...

http://bible1.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=3956&version=nas

so basically, it means "some of all" men, ie, for example, God saves SOME of ALL mankind; .... or, as in this case, "all of some" men ie, a certain group of people, in this case believers. For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men (all believers, whether male, female, children, etc. the context bears this out.)

[IHaveQuestions]

Thanks for the replies but could someone please explain the answer in simple language, as I am unable to follow it.

Thanks

[theseed]

Thanks for the replies but could someone please explain the answer in simple language, as I am unable to follow it.

Thanks
They are basically saying that, from context, it means all kinds of people, but not all people. Poor, rich, smart, tall, short, not so smart and so forth.

Now ask them about Ezek. 33.11 ;)

[Bro. Gabriel]

Now ask them about Ezek. 33.11 ;)


From the Geneva Study Bible:

f Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? saith the Lord GOD: [and] not that he should return from his ways, and live?


(f) He speaks this to commend God’s mercy to poor sinners, who rather is ready to pardon than to punish, as his long suffering declares, (Ezekiel 33:11). Though God in his eternal counsel appointed the death and damnation of the reprobate, yet the end of his counsel was not their death only, but chiefly his own glory. Also because he does not approve sin, therefore it is here said that he would have them turn away from it that they might live.

In other words, God has no pleasure in the wicked perishing, because He hates the sinful ways of the wicked and does not approve of their lifestyle. Their perishing is chiefly for the sake of God's Glory.

[theseed]

What about Ezekial 18.23?

Here is an article that goes in depth. I've not read it yet.

http://www.desiringgod.org/library/topics/doctrines_grace/2wills.html

[Bro. Gabriel]

What about Ezekial 18.23?


If you notice, the scripture I quoted was Ezekiel 18:23. Same concept and point.. That's why the Geneva Bible referred back to it for a commentary on it's concept when I looked-up Ezekiel 33:11. :)

[theseed]

Here is what Matthew Henry says,

It is certain that God has no delight in the ruin of sinners, nor does he desire it. If they will destroy themselves, he will glorify himself in it, but he has no pleasure in it, but would rather they should turn and live, for his goodness is that attribute of his which is most his glory, which is most his delight. He would rather sinners should turn and live than go on and die. He has said it, he has sworn it, that by these two immutable things, in both which it is impossible for God to lie, we might have strong consolation.
http://www.gospelcom.net/eword/comments/ezekiel/mh/ezekiel33.htm

He is conscious to himself that his obedience for the future can never be a valuable compensation for his former disobedience; but he has this to support himself with, that God's nature, property, and delight, is to have mercy and to forgive, for he has said (v. 23): "Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? No, by no means; you never had any cause given you to think so." It is true God has determined to punish sinners; his justice calls for their punishment, and, pursuant to that, impenitent sinners will lie for ever under his wrath and curse; that is the will of his decree, his consequent will, but it is not his antecedent will, the will of his delight.
http://www.gospelcom.net/eword/comments/ezekiel/mh/ezekiel18.htm

Antecedant will vs Consequent will :sratch:

Food for thought :yum:

[Zorobabel]

It boggles my mind that some quote certain verses that refer to "all" and say, "This proves unlimited atonement." I assume these same people, taking the verses in the fashion they do, believe every human being that has ever lived is a believer in Christ and heaven-bound.

[Bro. Gabriel]

Amen.

[LynneClomina]

Here is what Matthew Henry says,


http://www.gospelcom.net/eword/comments/ezekiel/mh/ezekiel33.htm


http://www.gospelcom.net/eword/comments/ezekiel/mh/ezekiel18.htm

Antecedant will vs Consequent will :sratch:

Food for thought :yum:

antecedant = before
consequent = after

[theseed]

antecedant = before
consequent = after
Yeah, I knew what they meant, but i can't make it make sense in my tiny brain--at least last night.

[rnmomof7]

Can you explain Titus Ch 2 especially verse 11

GNB Titus 2:11 For God has revealed his grace for the salvation of all people.

GW Titus 2:11 After all, God's saving kindness has appeared for the benefit of all people.

KJV Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,




Has He appeared to all men? It says no where it was applied to all men without exception correct.

[Iacobus]

It boggles my mind that some quote certain verses that refer to "all" and say, "This proves unlimited atonement." I assume these same people, taking the verses in the fashion they do, believe every human being that has ever lived is a believer in Christ and heaven-bound.

Of course not. But we do believe that God loves everyone enough to give them a shot at it.

James

[CCWoody]

Can you explain Titus Ch 2 especially verse 11

GNB Titus 2:11 For God has revealed his grace for the salvation of all people.

GW Titus 2:11 After all, God's saving kindness has appeared for the benefit of all people.

KJV Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,


Glad to.

These verses are talking about the 2 comings of Christ:

"For the Grace of God that brings Salvation has appeared."

"Looking for that blessed hope and appearing of that mighty God our Savour Jesus Christ."

Simple!

[theseed]

Has He appeared to all men? It says no where it was applied to all men without exception correct.
Yes, he has appeared to all men, but no all men see (John 1.5, 9, 18).

[Zorobabel]

Of course not. But we do believe that God loves everyone enough to give them a shot at it.

JamesThat's a very understandable position. However, the way you interpret scripture to support your position is to accept part of a verse and reject the rest. If you were to take these verses in full without contradiction in your terms the conclusion would be different.

The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance. - 2 Peter 3:9

From your standpoint, what does this verse mean: that God's will is failing because the vast majority of the earth does not have a relationship with Christ; that God's will is reliant upon the actions of men; that the Holy Spirit is not successful in it's propogation of the Gospel? No! This goes against everything said in scripture before and after it. "All" is referring to all of the elect, those that have been preordained to eternal life. When that last preordained soul has been saved God's will is accomplished and the world is finished. God knows the beginning to the end, no gaps in knowledge in between.