Can a fundie say that Mark got it wrong?

[colinlindsay]

Mark 2:26.

Does it matter that the OT text does not say that Abiathar was high priest? Do we have to reconcile these texts?

[HypnoToad]

It seems to me that the OT does say that Abiathar was high priest. In 1Sam, he brings the ephod to David - only the high priest's ephod was used as an oracle.

[Vambram]

In 1 Samuel, its obvious that we have in our Bibles an English translation of a Hebrew name. In Mark 2:6, we have an English translation of a greek word/name for a Hebrew high priest. It is not suprising that there would be differences in spelling and pronounciation which would cause spelling errors for the English translators.

[colinlindsay]

Let me nuance this a little.
Assumming there is a problem, can we accept that there was a copyist's error and that Mark actually got it right?
Do we have to believe that God overuled the copyists and transmitters as well of the orginal documents in order for us to preserve inerrancy?

[arunma]

First of all, no Christian ought to believe that Mark made a mistake, since he wrote by the Holy Spirit.

Having said that, it doesn't seem to be a problem with the Bible, but many translations thereof. Mark refers to "the time of Abiathar the high priest." Since Abiathar was Ahimelech's son, the Lord Jesus' statement is strictly correct.