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View Full Version : Do we have the true Hebrew?- Can we rightfully call upon the name of the L-rd?


SonWorshipper
14th September 2003, 07:26 PM
This scripture got me to thinking, do we have the true Hebrew? Even thought it was "resurrected" by those in Israel , did they get it right? This makes me think that it isn't exactly the same as it used to be , back in the Garden.

Zephaniah 3:9 For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the Lord.


Or is this something else? A different way of communicating?

Domi_Adsum_05
14th September 2003, 11:00 PM
This scripture got me to thinking, do we have the true Hebrew? Even thought it was "resurrected" by those in Israel , did they get it right? This makes me think that it isn't exactly the same as it used to be , back in the Garden. Modern Hebrew isn't a "resurrection" of Biblical Hebrew, it is in large part a new invention. Eliezer ben Yehuda personally created tons of new words as well as linguistic rules for Modern Hebrew so that it could be a modern spoken language.
As such, it seems unlikely to me that it is the "pure language" referenced in Scripture.

SonWorshipper
15th September 2003, 11:33 AM
I wasn't speaking of Modern Hebrew, but Biblical, I realize that there is a great difference. I guess I was focusing on the fact that I have yet to see an agreement on what the true pronounciation of the name of G-d is, being that the scripture I found was speaking of His name.

I guess my wording was incorrect, I should have said, "Do we have the right pronounciation of Biblical Hebrew?" http://www.christianforums.com/images/smilies/oops.gif

The Hebrew language was kept, but in so many countries by those speaking daily another language of another people. I have learned that there are many pronounciations of ordianary words, from one to another, but who is correct? I think it has to do with your heritage, where your ancestors settled and the "accent" they had.

Also I am still wondering about the wording in that scripture, it say "I will turn" not return, wondering about that too.

SonWorshipper
15th September 2003, 11:40 AM
Here is the word, from Strongs:

Strong's Number: 02015
Original Word
Word Origin $ph
a primitive root
Entry Haphak
Phonetic Spelling - haw-fak'

Verb - Definition
to change, transform (Niphal)
to be upturned (Hithpael)
to turn this way and that, turn every way (Hophal) to turn on someone[/list][/list]

Domi_Adsum_05
15th September 2003, 12:39 PM
I wasn't speaking of Modern Hebrew, but Biblical, I realize that there is a great difference. I guess I was focusing on the fact that I have yet to see an agreement on what the true pronounciation of the name of G-d is, being that the scripture I found was speaking of His name.
Sorry, SW! When you said that Hebrew had been "resurrected," I mistakenly thought that you meant Modern Hebrew. My bad!
When you speak of Hebrew being resurrected, are you referring to the work of Ezra?

SonWorshipper
15th September 2003, 01:21 PM
Oh dear! perhaps I didn't use the correct word. I know that Hebrew was not the common language even in the time of Yeshua walking the earth, right? Basically Aramaic and Greek was being used but I believe that the scriptures were still read in Hebrew in the Synagogues, no? Or was it the Septuigent?

I guess what I inferred from that passage in Zeph. was that at one time the pure language existed, not sure if this was before Babel or not but I believe that the true Hebrew (the language of G-d ) was spoken between Adam and the L-rd when they walked together in the Garden.

Now Moses asked the L-rd what his name was to tell the people and there are many questions as to what it means. Also Moses I don't believe was speaking Hebrew at that time.

The word used in that scripture is "pure" Which in Hebrew is the word "barar" meaning to purge,to be chosen,be choice; to be sharpened , polished, to keep clean, be pure, purify, to cleanse,to sharpen

Interesting in light of Malachi 3:3