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Logos1560
10th January 2007, 05:31 PM
D. A. Waite is the author of several books that advocate a KJV-only view. His ministry The Bible for Today sells over 100 books that promote a KJV-only view. David Cloud, another KJV-only author, commended the “diligent study” and “diligent research” of Waite, and he indicated that Waite should be taken as an example of those who defend the KJV” (Examining “the King James Only Controversy,“ pp. 18-20).

KJV-only author D. A. Waite maintained that “there are slight errors in the Oxford edition which do not conform either to the Hebrew and Greek or to the original Authorized Version of 1611” (Defending the KJB, p. 252). D. A. Waite wrote: “I have found at least 3 errors in the Oxford edition of the KJB” (Foes, p. 117).

If these three variations or differences can be labeled “errors” by a KJV-only author, are there no other such differences that can be accurately considered errors?

Were these errors first introduced into the text of the KJV by printers or editors at Oxford?

What are those "3 errors"?

Seeker of the Truth
10th January 2007, 06:49 PM
Although there may be spelling errors and such, the meaning of any version of the Bible stays true to God's Word and to the meaning of Christ (the most important aspect of the Bible). So, I beg that you would "chill" out and stop making arguments that won't ever be "won" or "lost".

Logos1560
10th January 2007, 07:54 PM
While posting accurate information about the Bible translation issue and asking valid questions may not convince KJV-only advocates, it may help those whose confidence in other English translations may have been harmed by inaccurate, misleading KJV-only accusations. The important matter does not involve winning or losing arguments. The important matter is presenting the truth as shown by documented, valid evidence.

In one example in Jeremiah 34:16, the present Oxford KJV has "whom he" while the present Cambridge KJV has "whom ye." D. A. Waite wrote: "In Jeremiah 34:16 the Oxford University Press King James Version is wrong, false, and in error" (Foes of the KJB Refuted, p. 66). Concerning this same verse, KJV defender Thomas Holland claimed that "the error was limited to the editions published by Oxford or those based on the Oxford edition" (Crowned with Glory, p. 101). He also identified it as “a printing error found in some current editions” (p. 100). KJV-only author David Daniels wrote that the Oxford printers “mistakenly printed ’whom he’ instead of the correct ’whom ye’ (Answers, p. 127). KJV-only advocate David Sorenson maintained that the Cambridge edition has the “correct translation” at this verse (Touch Not, p. 19).

CooL_Genesis
10th January 2007, 09:31 PM
hmmm.... if I'm to pick up the Word only to find what may be wrong with it... why pick it up?

Give it a rest, Logos. Spend more time reading and understanding the Word of God and you'll see how unimportant this agrument is.

Logos1560
10th January 2007, 09:42 PM
KJV-only authors were incorrect in their claim that the Oxford printers introduced the rendering "whom he" at Jeremiah 34:16.

F. H. A. Scrivener pointed out that the rendering “whom he” was introduced into the KJV in the 1629 and 1638 Cambridge editions (Authorized Edition, p. 225). Two of the KJV translators themselves were among the editors of the Cambridge editions that introduced the rendering “whom he” into the text of the KJV. At this verse, the later Oxford editions were following earlier Cambridge standard editions. The 1762 Cambridge edition, one 1790 Cambridge edition, one 1824 Cambridge edition, one 1833 Cambridge edition, one 1842 Cambridge edition, one 1844 Cambridge edition, one 1865 Cambridge edition, one 1869 Cambridge edition, one 1872 Cambridge edition, and one 1887 Cambridge edition all have “whom he” at this verse, indicating that several Cambridge editions in the 1800‘s likely had this rendering. Peter Ruckman defended both renderings “ye” and “he” at this verse and suggested that either does “not alter the truth” of the statement in this verse at either edition of the KJV (Scholarship Only, p. 71). While the 1948 Pilgrim Edition printed by Oxford University Press in New York had “whom he” at Jeremiah 34:16, the 2003 New Pilgrim Bible [KJV] with consulting editors Jerry Rockwell and Douglas Stauffer has “whom ye.” The 1997 Oxford World’s Classics edition of the KJV printed by Oxford University Press has “whom ye” (Jer. 34:16).

DLMoody
10th January 2007, 09:46 PM
Logos, I agree with your stance but I've been in this forum for only a half an hour and I'm already sick of your posts. Give it a rest. You are getting to be just as obnoxious as a lot of IFB.