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Bushmaster78FS
16th November 2006, 01:26 AM
Some argue that the person indicated in Isaiah 9:6 is not the Lord but Jewish king Hezekiah. What is the argument and how is it resolved?

And I know this will sound a little dumb but it is good to know while working around a lot of non-believers everyday.

Question is, Lord taught that with prayer if we believe we can move mountains. If He claimed that prayer alone could move mountains when belief is sufficent then why wasn't his prayer answered? This question was brought up to me in a mocking manner, I kept quiet.

authiodionitist
16th November 2006, 03:33 AM
Answer of the Lord's prayer in the garden? I'm not very familiar with the Church Fathers, but I bet the others on the forum sure are up on that stuff. Anyone, Church Fathers, anyone?

Bushmaster78FS
17th November 2006, 10:52 AM
Noone I guess?

Oblio
17th November 2006, 11:14 AM
I think it was interesting that the prayer in the Garden (I assume you are speaking of, 'Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass...') was the only prayer that was not granted to Christ, and the result made effectual our salvation.

Matrona
17th November 2006, 11:35 AM
I think it was interesting that the prayer in the Garden (I assume you are speaking of, 'Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass...') was the only prayer that was not granted to Christ, and the result made effectual our salvation.

And IMHO it proves monothelitism to be heresy.

Bushmaster78FS
17th November 2006, 02:34 PM
The questioner is trying to create kind of a paradox, questioning Christ teaching to pray with faith, and it will be done, but when He does pray in stress so that He is spared, it does not happen. The questioner automatically arrives the conclusion then prayer might or might not work.

I see it that Christ expressed His heart's desire, was that a prayer so He would be spared or was that a cry out to the Father in His humanity.