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View Full Version : Cultural/dispensational understanding/interpreting of Scripture


kenneth558
10th November 2006, 02:19 AM
To elaborate, think about all the times you've heard the phrase "Back then, they ..." to explain away the relevancy of a verse of scripture. Example: "Back then, the Corinthian women would disrupt the service ..." to justify claiming obsolesence of the timeless (in my opinion) truth in 1 Cor 14:35 "for it is a shame for women to speak in the church."

edit - I'll grant that a phrase here and there in scripture may need to be culturally understood for clarity, but I'm really asking about whether whole teachings should be.

If you answer the poll "true", could you perhaps give examples within scripture itself where previous scripture being quoted is recognized to be of a different culture or dispensation and thus it meaning is to be modified?

Thank you and the Lord bless you!

Project 86
10th November 2006, 10:02 AM
I put depends. It sometimes is important to know certain things about the culture so that you can toally understand what was going on. That doesn't mean the Bible alone isn't sufficent though.

twistedsketch
10th November 2006, 02:38 PM
It really depends on what you mean by that. "Dispensationalists" have left a bad taste in my mouth by teaching that we're not to follow key teachings of Jesus and whitewash over further evidence that we are to follow them in the epistles. That said, the culture is part of the context, and the context is necessary to understand the passage and how it applies to us today.

kenneth558
11th November 2006, 04:48 AM
Alright, antsinmypants. You answered "true" so I wonder if you can find examples the Bible quotes itself and allows for a change or annullment in the meaning because of a change in culture or dispensation.

No Swansong
11th November 2006, 08:38 AM
This is a reminder that posts are to be directed at posts and not people. Obviously we can fellowship and discuss back and forth, but if a particular person responds to the poll we are not to challenge their response. If they choose to elaborate they may, however it is not encumbant upon them to do so.

HadassahSukkot
11th November 2006, 02:38 PM
I feel that things are often removed from their cultural understanding and mistaught, yes.

Do I think things are replaced or "removed", no.

This is a poll asking what we feel about understanding of scripture, and that is where I leave my answer.

TwinCrier
11th November 2006, 08:38 PM
I think it's helpful to better understand certain issues and parables, but I don't believe that our culture can change the truth of scripture. Too often I see sin downplayed because it's more practical or acceptable in this modern era.

kenneth558
12th November 2006, 08:27 PM
Does anyone want to help me think through scripture quotations within scripture that culture and "dispensation" differences are very clearly existing but not catered to? And it may well be that ALL restatements of scripture are done showing that any truth within scripture is timeless and in spite of culture and "dispensation" differences.

cubanito
14th November 2006, 07:19 PM
Yes

Adammi
14th November 2006, 10:15 PM
I voted yes, because just as God had to become relevant to mankind through the incarnation, so he must continually become relevant to different times and cultures through us.
If scirpture must not be found within a cultural context then we all need to reject everything that is non-Jewish and everything that developed after the 1st century.