Adammi
22nd August 2006, 02:40 PM
Ok, I don't know the actual theological vocabulary to ask what I'm asking so please bear with me.
Now, according to the RC (as far as I know) revelation has been progressive i.e. the dogmas of Papal Infallibility and the Assumption of Mary have only recently been defined as dogmas, while in the Orthodox Church revelation is not seen as progressive and even though an issue like the Theotokos being assumed into heaven after her dormition is held in tradition, it can't become a dogma.
So, my question was (if the above is correct). When did revelation stop being progressive? With the death of the last apostle? Or am I just totally confused and messed up in everything about this thread? LOL
Now, according to the RC (as far as I know) revelation has been progressive i.e. the dogmas of Papal Infallibility and the Assumption of Mary have only recently been defined as dogmas, while in the Orthodox Church revelation is not seen as progressive and even though an issue like the Theotokos being assumed into heaven after her dormition is held in tradition, it can't become a dogma.
So, my question was (if the above is correct). When did revelation stop being progressive? With the death of the last apostle? Or am I just totally confused and messed up in everything about this thread? LOL