Chief117
7th October 2005, 12:01 PM
Hello,
I have had this particular question about the Biblical Old Testament for a while now, and thought to myself, "I bet that this would be a great place to ask about it."
I was just wondering how the Old Testament of a common Bible would compare to the Holy Book of a non-messianic Jew? If I were to have a discussion with a follower of Judaism, would I be able to use the Old Testament effectively? or would there be some division there?
Also, I've heard a few other things and would appreciate anyone who could comment on the accuracy of thise claims:
All Jewish children were required to memorize the first five books word for word. Those who showed potential could memorize the whole of Scripture, and possibly become a Rabbi.
Then, is it safe to say that the OT has stayed true to the original message? That it did not become "watered down" over the centuries because of "word of mouth" errors? Is this still done today? Do we know how long this has been the practice?
The Jewish Scriptures were written without vowels in it, so many Jews claim that the prophecies about Jesus of Nazereth as the Christ were false--being misinterpretations of Scripture. Is this true? to what extent?
Thanks, I appreciate your responses.
G-d Bless.
I have had this particular question about the Biblical Old Testament for a while now, and thought to myself, "I bet that this would be a great place to ask about it."
I was just wondering how the Old Testament of a common Bible would compare to the Holy Book of a non-messianic Jew? If I were to have a discussion with a follower of Judaism, would I be able to use the Old Testament effectively? or would there be some division there?
Also, I've heard a few other things and would appreciate anyone who could comment on the accuracy of thise claims:
All Jewish children were required to memorize the first five books word for word. Those who showed potential could memorize the whole of Scripture, and possibly become a Rabbi.
Then, is it safe to say that the OT has stayed true to the original message? That it did not become "watered down" over the centuries because of "word of mouth" errors? Is this still done today? Do we know how long this has been the practice?
The Jewish Scriptures were written without vowels in it, so many Jews claim that the prophecies about Jesus of Nazereth as the Christ were false--being misinterpretations of Scripture. Is this true? to what extent?
Thanks, I appreciate your responses.
G-d Bless.