JustinWilliams
4th August 2005, 10:39 PM
Hi folks! :wave:
Again I am reading through John T. Pless's bok "Handling the Word of Truth" which is basically a summary of Walther's book on Law/Gospel distinction. I came a cross a quote from the Schmalkald Articles concerning Christians sinning and the Holy Spirit.
Therefore it is necessary to know and teach that when holy people-aside from the fact that they still have and feel original sin and also daily repent of and struggle against it-somehow fall into public sin (such as David, who fell into adultery, murder, and blasphemy against God), at that point faith and the Spirit have departed. The Holy Spirit does not allow sin to rule and gain the upper hand so that it is brought to completion, but the Spirit controls and resists so that sin does whatever it wants, then the Holy Spirit and faith are not there. As St. John says (1 John 3:9: "Thos who have been born of God do not sin...and cannot sin." Nevertheless, this is also the truth (as the same St. John writes [1:8]):"If we say that we have no sin, we decieve ourselves, and the truth of God is not in us."
Articles III, 3, 43-45
What I have a question about is the statement that "at this point faith and the Spirit have departed." Does this mean that the Holy Spirit has departed from that person for good? Is this the act of one falling from grace?
I am not very familiar with the Schmalkald Articles so any input would be very helpful.
Thank you in advance :thumbsup:
Justin
Again I am reading through John T. Pless's bok "Handling the Word of Truth" which is basically a summary of Walther's book on Law/Gospel distinction. I came a cross a quote from the Schmalkald Articles concerning Christians sinning and the Holy Spirit.
Therefore it is necessary to know and teach that when holy people-aside from the fact that they still have and feel original sin and also daily repent of and struggle against it-somehow fall into public sin (such as David, who fell into adultery, murder, and blasphemy against God), at that point faith and the Spirit have departed. The Holy Spirit does not allow sin to rule and gain the upper hand so that it is brought to completion, but the Spirit controls and resists so that sin does whatever it wants, then the Holy Spirit and faith are not there. As St. John says (1 John 3:9: "Thos who have been born of God do not sin...and cannot sin." Nevertheless, this is also the truth (as the same St. John writes [1:8]):"If we say that we have no sin, we decieve ourselves, and the truth of God is not in us."
Articles III, 3, 43-45
What I have a question about is the statement that "at this point faith and the Spirit have departed." Does this mean that the Holy Spirit has departed from that person for good? Is this the act of one falling from grace?
I am not very familiar with the Schmalkald Articles so any input would be very helpful.
Thank you in advance :thumbsup:
Justin