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alilsa
28th February 2005, 04:05 PM
How do you write "Elohim" in Hebrew? And what does His name mean? Or is it a name that Jews don't use? I heard that that was the Hebrew name for God in John 3:16 in modern Hebrew. But I don't know enough Hebrew to find His name in the book of John either. Is it similar to calling him "Abba"?

Wags
28th February 2005, 04:41 PM
It is not the same as Abba, which means father.

From the Blue Letter Study Bible on-line edition:

(el-o-heem')
God, Judge, Creator

Use in the Bible: : In the Old Testament Elohim occurs over 2000 times. Elohim is first used in Gen 1:1 (http://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/Gen/Gen001.html#1).

Variant spellings: None

TWOT Reference: 93c

Strong's Reference: 0430 (http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/strongs.pl?book=Gen&chapter=1&verse=1&strongs=0430)

Elohim in the Septuagint: theos — the standard Greek word for god, "a transcendent being who exercises extraordinary control in human affairs or is responsible for bestowal of unusual benefits" (BDAG). It specifically refers to the monotheistic God of Israel.

Meaning and Derivation: Elohim is translated as "God." The derivation of the name Elohim is debatable to most scholars. Some believe it derived from 'êl which, in turn, originates from the root word, 'wl (which means "strong"). Others think that Elohim is derived from another two roots: 'lh (which means "god") in conjunction with 'elôah (which means "fear"). And still others presume that both 'êl and Elohim come from 'eloah.



From the Jewish Encyclopedia (http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=52&letter=N#165) on-line edition:



Elohim.

The most common of the originally appellative names of God is Elohim (http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/volume9/V09p161016.jpg), plural in form though commonly construed with a singular verb or adjective. This is, most probably, to be explained as the plural of majesty or excellence, expressing high dignity or greatness: comp. the similar use of plurals of "ba'al" (master) and "adon" (lord). In Ethiopic, Amlak ("lords") is the common name for God. The singular, Eloah (http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/volume9/V09p161017.jpg), is comparatively rare, occurring only in poetry and late prose (in Job, 41 times). The same divine name is found in Arabic (ilah) and in Aramaic (elah). The singular is used in six places for heathen deities (II Chron. xxxii. 15; Dan. xi. 37, 38; etc.); and the plural also, a few times, either for gods or images (Ex. ix. 1, xii. 12, xx. 3; etc.) or for one god (Ex. xxxii. 1; Gen. xxxi. 30, 32; etc.). In the great majority of cases both are used as names of the one God of Israel.

The root-meaning of the word is unknown. The most probable theory is that it may be connected with the old Arabic verb "alih" (to be perplexed, afraid; to seek refuge because of fear). Eloah, Elohim, would, therefore, be "He who is the object of fear or reverence," or "He with whom one who is afraid takes refuge" (comp. the name "fear of Isaac" in Gen. xxxi. 42, 53; see also Isa. viii. 13; Ps. lxxvi. 12). The predominance of this name in the later writings, as compared with the more distinctively Hebrew national name Yhwh, may have been due to the broadening idea of God as the transcendent and universal Lord.

talmidim
28th February 2005, 04:54 PM
How do you write "Elohim" in Hebrew? And what does His name mean? Or is it a name that Jews don't use? I heard that that was the Hebrew name for God in John 3:16 in modern Hebrew. But I don't know enough Hebrew to find His name in the book of John either. Is it similar to calling him "Abba"?
Hi alilsa, :wave:

There are others better qualified to answer you questions, but I'll give it a try. I do not speak Hebrew so my knowledge is limited. The spelling of Elohim in Hebrew is Aleph, Lamed, Hey, Yud, and Mem. Reading right to left the letters look like this:
אֱלֹהִים

Strong's Hebrew and Greek Dictionarie

H430 אלהים 'ĕlo^hi^ym el-o-heem'

Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, X exceeding, God (gods) (-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.


This is where things get interesting (at least for me)...
Hebrew is a language where the letters themselves have definitions. By putting the letters together you are actually joining the definitions to make a word that is a compound of the definition of the letters.

Aleph (א) means number one, strong, leader etc. It's spiritual significance is that it relates to and refers to the Father.
Lamed (ל) is a picture of a shepherds staff and means to teach, guide, yoke etc. It's spiritual significance is to teach and give purpose and it relates to the Torah and to the Son.
Hey (ה) comes from a pictograph of a man with his arms raised. It means breath, sigh, look, reveal, etc. It's spiritual significance has to do with the Spirit of G-d and the will of G-d revealed.
Yud (י) comes from the picture of a hand and means grasp, work, throw, etc. It's spiritual significance has to do with the work of creation and the Hand of G-d.
Mem (ם) come from a pictograph of water. It means water, blood, mighty, etc. It's spiritual significance has to do with G-d's relationship to His creation and His plan of salvation.
So in the word Elohim, you have a reference to the Father, the Son, The Holy Spirit, the work of creation and G-d's plan of salvation!

The word John used in 3:16 is: Strong's Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries
G2316 θεός theos theh'-os

Of uncertain affinity; a deity, especially (with G3588) the supreme Divinity; figuratively a magistrate; by Hebraism very: - X exceeding, God, god [-ly, -ward].

Abba comes from the root word Av (Aleph, Bet) which means father. It is a diminutive usage, kind of like saying "daddy". I hope this helps.

shmuel
28th February 2005, 06:49 PM
Hebrew is a language where the letters themselves have definitions. By putting the letters together you are actually joining the definitions to make a word that is a compound of the definition of the letters.

This is simply untrue. While the symbols are derived from pictograms that had individual meaning, the great breakthrough was the realization that the symbols could be used to represent sounds independent of the original meaning of the pictograms. The spelling of words is based on the sounds that the letters make. It should be remembered that the matres lectiones (yod, vav, and he used to indicate vowels) were not used in Hebrew until the 9th century BCE. That was after the composition of the Torah and much of the former prophets. However, there is no portion of the Tanakh without matres. This indicates that scribes added these letters later. Did they change the meaning when they added these letters? Because of the uneven use of matres a number of words have multiple spellings. For instance, the word "toledot" (usually translated generations, as in "these are the generations of ...") has four different spellings. If the spelling yields the meaning rather than the pronunciation, then this word has four different meanings! This approach is not productive.

Most scholars believe that the NT was written in Greek. However, when it is translated into Hebrew the word "Elohim" is used to translate the Greek "theos" in Jn 3:16.

S

shmuel
28th February 2005, 07:01 PM
Consider this example:

Elohim spelled alef-lamed-he-yod-mem means "God"

but Elohei spelled alef-lamed-he-yod means "God of" as in "Elohei Avraham" (God of Avraham). If meaning is derived from spelling how does dropping mem, which means "water" change the meaning from "God" to "God of"?

S

debi b
28th February 2005, 07:02 PM
This indicates that scribes added these letters later.

There would be oh so many that would disagree with you on that statement ;) But this is not the place to take up that discussion :)

shmuel
28th February 2005, 07:18 PM
There would be oh so many that would disagree with you on that statement ;) But this is not the place to take up that discussion :)

It would be a rare scholar, in deed, who did not place the first use of matres in Hebrew around the 9th century BCE. That being the case, either the letters were added or else the documents were composed after the 9th century.

One should also note that the spelling used at Qumran used many more matres than those found in the Mesoretic text. Just check out the Great Isaiah Scroll from Qumran and compare it with the MT.

http://www.ao.net/~fmoeller/qumdir.htm

S

debi b
28th February 2005, 07:25 PM
I fear we are talking apples and oranges ;) But I have no wish to derail the thread.

alilsa
28th February 2005, 07:54 PM
So, God can't be Abba Father and Elohim Creator at the same time? I thought He could be both and what is wrong with His being Abba, Father too? It would have been great to have a daddy, too or be Heavenly Father. What is His name for Heavenly Father in Hebrew or was he a Father in the O.T. too or just the N.T?

Shimshon
28th February 2005, 08:02 PM
Bersheet 26:24
ADONAI appeared to him that same night and said, "I am the God of Avraham your father.
Throughout Torah YHWH is mainly refered to as Elohei. The "God of" our fathers. One does not see him being refered to as "Abba" but as Elohim. God. YHWH. El Elyon (Yah Most High, or The Most High God.)

But in the Nevi'im he is refered to as Abba (Father).

Tehillim 68:5
God in his holy dwelling, is a father to orphans and defender of widows.

Tehillim 89:26
He will call to me, 'You are my father, my God, the Rock of my salvation.'

Yesha 9:6
For a child is born to us, a son is given to us; dominion will rest on his shoulders, and he will be given the name Pele-Yo'etz El Gibbor Avi-'Ad Sar-Shalom [Wonder of a Counselor, Mighty God, Father of Eternity, Prince of Peace],

Malakhi 2:10
Don't we all have the same father? Didn't one God create us all?

Avinu Shebashamayim, means "Our Father who is in Heaven"

talmidim
28th February 2005, 08:11 PM
This is simply untrue. While the symbols are derived from pictograms that had individual meaning, the great breakthrough was the realization that the symbols could be used to represent sounds independent of the original meaning of the pictograms. The spelling of words is based on the sounds that the letters make. It should be remembered that the matres lectiones (yod, vav, and he used to indicate vowels) were not used in Hebrew until the 9th century BCE. That was after the composition of the Torah and much of the former prophets. However, there is no portion of the Tanakh without matres. This indicates that scribes added these letters later. Did they change the meaning when they added these letters? Because of the uneven use of matres a number of words have multiple spellings. For instance, the word "toledot" (usually translated generations, as in "these are the generations of ...") has four different spellings. If the spelling yields the meaning rather than the pronunciation, then this word has four different meanings! This approach is not productive.

Most scholars believe that the NT was written in Greek. However, when it is translated into Hebrew the word "Elohim" is used to translate the Greek "theos" in Jn 3:16.

S
Shalom shmuel,

What did I do or say to you? How did I provoke you to say that I am speaking untruth?

Do you deny that ancient Hebrew evolved from Proto-Hebraic pictographs?
Do you deny that these pictographs had specific definition and pronunciations?
Do you deny that Ancient Hebrew root words are based upon these definitions?

Just because you have different information about MODERN Hebrew than what I offered about ANCIENT Hebrew, does not give you the right to bash me or my post. I have researched the Proto-Hebraic, the Ancient Hebrew letters, the Modern Hebrew letters and their respective etymologies. Furthermore, the Proto-Hebraic pictographs DO have a seperate sound for each letter, just like modern AlephBet systems. This DOES NOT mean that letter pronunciation or definition suddenly changed when there was a move to a different means of writing each letter. Things like this evolve over time. Proto-Hebrew was a true AlephBet system, not hieroglyphics. The "great breakthrough" you refer to was already history by 2000 B.C.E.

While it may be true that words in Modern Hebrew have evolved differently than those formulated in ancient times, I do not see how this negates my answer to alilsa. If you have a clarification concerning the information I post, I would appreciate it if you would present it as such. If you have a correction of an error on my part direct it to me and the source of my error, without calling me a liar. Thank you.

Wags
28th February 2005, 08:11 PM
So, God can't be Abba Father and Elohim Creator at the same time? I thought He could be both and what is wrong with His being Abba, Father too? It would have been great to have a daddy, too or be Heavenly Father. What is His name for Heavenly Father in Hebrew or was he a Father in the O.T. too or just the N.T?

No he can be both those and more, but I thought your question was does Abba mean the same as Elohim and it doesn't.

alilsa
28th February 2005, 10:11 PM
No, someone said Abba was diminitive meaning less and it sounded like saying that God as Abba would be alot less than God being Creator. I don't know as God stopped being creator after he created everything in Genesis but He still stayed the Heavenly Father and Abba throughout time, didn't He? Talmidin and shmuel, you both lost me on your argument. I just wanted to know how to spell Elohim in Hebrew. I have a Gideon Bible with John 3:16 in Hebrew and I was going to circle God's name in it. The symbolism sounded beautiful and I guess the other was going for some exact meaning or something. I don't know, I'm not a Hebrew scholar. Do you know the Hebrew word in John 3:16 for love and how it is spelled in Hebrew? Please don't fight on my forum.

talmidim
28th February 2005, 10:17 PM
No, someone said Abba was diminitive meaning less and it sounded like saying that God as Abba would be alot less than God being Creator. I don't know as God stopped being creator after he created everything in Genesis but He still stayed the Heavenly Father and Abba throughout time, didn't He? Talmidin and shmuel, you both lost me on your argument. I just wanted to know how to spell Elohim in Hebrew. I have a Gideon Bible with John 3:16 in Hebrew and I was going to circle God's name in it. The symbolism sounded beautiful and I guess the other was going for some exact meaning or something. I don't know, I'm not a Hebrew scholar. Do you know the Hebrew word in John 3:16 for love and how it is spelled in Hebrew? Please don't fight on my forum.Hi again alilsa,
I'm sorry for the disagreement. The New Testiment you are reading was translated from the Greek. In my earlier post I included the Strong's definition for the word "Theos" which is the Greek equivalent to the Hebrew word Elohim. I hope this helps.

alilsa
28th February 2005, 10:41 PM
Is God Elohim in John 3:16 in Hebrew? Because I can't find His name in Hebrew like someone typed it. Does anybody have a Hebrew Bible with John 3:16 in it and could tell me what each word is? I know you read it from right to left but is there a way to find out what each word is in Hebrew to English? I'm guessing it doesn't translate word for word in the KJV into Hebrew exactly. Or could someone just put the verse up in Hebrew and mark which word is God in Hebrew? There is one that looks like what you typed but it has a HE as the first Hebrew letter I guess, (looks like a box without a bottom), maybe CHETH but I don't think it's a TAU. Maybe someone could help me by just marking the verse where God's name is.

talmidim
1st March 2005, 02:30 AM
Is God Elohim in John 3:16 in Hebrew? Hi alilsa,

No dear sister, it is not. The New Testiment was written in Greek, not Hebrew. The Old Testiment was written in Hebrew. John 3:16 is in the New Testiment, so it was originally written in Greek.

I am going to take you to Genesis 1:1. The highlighted word is Elohim, or God. Remember, Hebrew reads from the right to the left.

<----<< reads this way <----<<
בְּרֵאשִׁית, בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים, אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם, וְאֵת הָאָרֶץ
or
בראשית ברא אלהים את השמים ואת הארץ

>>----> reads this way >>---->
In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

What you are probably looking at is Greek. Next I'll put up John 3:16 from the New Testiment.

Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.





This is the same verse in Greek. The word for God is highlighted.
Joh 3:16 ουτως γαρ ηγαπησεν ο θεος τον κοσμον ωστε τον υιον αυτου τον μονογενη εδωκεν ινα πας ο πιστευων εις αυτον μη αποληται αλλ εχη ζωην αιωνιον Is this what you were looking for?

koilias
1st March 2005, 01:49 PM
Is God Elohim in John 3:16 in Hebrew? Because I can't find His name in Hebrew like someone typed it. Does anybody have a Hebrew Bible with John 3:16 in it and could tell me what each word is? I know you read it from right to left but is there a way to find out what each word is in Hebrew to English? I'm guessing it doesn't translate word for word in the KJV into Hebrew exactly. Or could someone just put the verse up in Hebrew and mark which word is God in Hebrew? There is one that looks like what you typed but it has a HE as the first Hebrew letter I guess, (looks like a box without a bottom), maybe CHETH but I don't think it's a TAU. Maybe someone could help me by just marking the verse where God's name is.
Alilsa there is no original text of John in Hebrew. But you can translate it into Hebrew. Here is John 3:16 according to Delitzsch's Hebrew translation:

כִּי־אַהֲבָה רַבָּה אָהַב הָאֱלֹהִים אֶת־הָעוֹלָם עַד־אֲשֶׁר נָתַן אֶת־בְּנוֹ אֶת־יְחִידוֹ לְמַעַן אֲשֶׁר לֹא־יֹאבַד כָּל־הַמַּאֲמִין בּוֹ כִּי אִם־יִחְיֶה חַיֵּי עוֹלָם׃

He translates it to mean thus: "For with so big a love G-d loved the world, that he gave his son, the unique one, in order that he (they) will not perish all who believe in him but will live life everlasting."

The Heh before "Elohim" is the specifying article ("the"--read literally "the G-d") in Hebrew...which works great in Hebrew and in Greek, but not with English usage of proper nouns.

shmuel
1st March 2005, 02:18 PM
Thanks to Koilias for putting up the Hebrew. An interesting point about the Hebrew of the verse is the use of `olam for both "world" and "everlasting". I believe the useage of `olam for "world" is post Tanakh. Of course we hear it that way often in the blessing formula " ... melekh ha`olam ..." (...King of the world ...).

S

Shimshon
1st March 2005, 03:37 PM
Alilsa there is no original text of John in Hebrew. But you can translate it into Hebrew.

And that is exactly what you have. Alilsa, you will not find the name YHWH in a version 'translated' from the Greek. Because the Greek terms were translated into Hebrew. As koilias refered to.

So where the Greek states, 'for God so loved the world'. God would translate into Elohim, not YHWH. Because the observance of NOT using the name was still practiced. I've only seen people from 'sacred name' theology translate the Greek to Hebrew and reconstitute the use of YHWH over titles such as ADONAI or Elohim.

But i've noticed most 'scholars' and proponants of such usually scoff at them.

alilsa
1st March 2005, 05:17 PM
Thanks, that helped me find his name, but this Hebrew in my Bible in not exactly like the one you showed me but I don't know what version of Hebrew it is. I know that John was originally written in Greek. But my Gideon NT has John 3:16 in 25 different languages. The rest of my NT is in KJV. We call God, "God", though in some places in scripture He is Jehovah somethings. I was referring anyhow that people who speak Hebrew I'm guessing can buy a Bible written in Hebrew though and it would have John 3:16 in it unless it is a Jewish Book with only the OT. I've seen them too but they were written in English and also read alot like KJV but without the NT. What is the Hebrew word for "love" in this verse? not ahab is it? Anyhow, isn't the word for God in Gen. 1:1 in Hebrew plural? It don't have the "the" by it. Because in Genesis, it was the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost that created the world, together.

shmuel
1st March 2005, 05:39 PM
In the version posted by Koilias, there is the noun "love" spelled alef-heh-bet-heh (it is the second word) and the verb "loved" spelled alef-heh-bet (fourth word - immediately before Elohim).

I have a different translation from the one cited by Koilias. It was translated by the Bible Society in Israel. It reads slightly differently. It uses Elohim without the definite article for God. It is the same word as used in Gen 1:1.

S

alilsa
1st March 2005, 06:04 PM
same word for love as in Prov. 8:17 "I love them that love me" and loved as in Jer. 31:3 "I have loved thee with an everlasting love", is that right? 'ahab means love

shmuel
1st March 2005, 06:16 PM
Yes, it is the same verb root in Pr 8:17. It is used twice, once for "I love" and also for 'my lovers". Both verb and noun forms from the same root appear in Jer 31:3.

S

Shimshon
1st March 2005, 06:21 PM
shmuel, maybe you could explain the differences between; ahab and ahav, and ohev and oheb?

koilias
1st March 2005, 06:22 PM
Anyhow, isn't the word for God in Gen. 1:1 in Hebrew plural? It don't have the "the" by it. Because in Genesis, it was the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost that created the world, together.

Alilsa, "Elohim" in Gen 1:1 is most definitely singular. Otherwise the verb would be in the plural form.

It says "Elohim bara" -- "G-d he-created",

NOT "Elohim baru" -- "G-d they-created".

..."Elohim" can be plural only when referring to "judges", not when it is used for G-d.

koilias
1st March 2005, 06:23 PM
Alilsa, "Elohim" in Gen 1:1 is most definitely singular. Otherwise the verb would be in the plural form.

It says "Elohim bara" -- "G-d he-created",

NOT "Elohim baru" -- "G-d they-created".

..."Elohim" can be plural only when referring to "judges", not when it is used for G-d.

Barukh HaShem that Hebrew leaves no room for error.:)

alilsa
1st March 2005, 06:36 PM
So Elohim is never referring to the Trinity? or in the plural but is just one like Deut. 6:4 one God but not the Trinity? Maybe I should let the study go, it gets confusing. I couldn't explain about the Trinity in English much less understand it in Hebrew. I work with a kid that is Jesus Only and he said he only has 1 God not 3 but he believes Jesus is all 3 at the same time. I don't, I believe in the Trinity but He's still one God

shmuel
1st March 2005, 06:36 PM
shmuel, maybe you could explain the differences between; ahab and ahav, and ohev and oheb?

Bet is pronounced as "b" at the beginning of a word or a syllable that follows a closed syllable or when it is doubled by a dagesh forte. It is pronounced as "v" when it follows a vowel.

S