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Buccaneer
22nd November 2004, 02:35 AM
I was wondering if Ruth was a gentile and then married a Jewish man, does that not violate Torah? Also, doesnt that void King David's jewishness?

Talmidah
22nd November 2004, 03:02 AM
The rabbinical pov is that Ruth converted. This is not the normative messianic or christian view.

talmidim
22nd November 2004, 06:07 AM
The rabbinical pov is that Ruth converted. This is not the normative messianic or christian view.Why not?Rth 1:16 And Ruth said, Entreat me not to leave thee, or to return from following after thee: for whither thou goest, I will go; and where thou lodgest, I will lodge: thy people shall be my people, and thy God my God:I am still learning, but this seems the case on the surface of things. What am I missing?

Talmidah
22nd November 2004, 12:55 PM
Why not?
Hi talmidim :wave: ,
I am SOOOOO late for work right now, but since I probably won't be able to log on today, I didn't want you to think I was ignoring you.

Basically, the rabbis look on this as part of the conversion process and that we are simply not told the whole story. Naomi's discouraging of Ruth's accompanying her sets the model by which the rabbis will try to discourage prospective converts today. Those who are truly meant to be a part of the Jewish people will continue on despite the rabbi's turning them away. Those who are not will fall to the side or choose another path for themselves. Or may be ready at a later time.

Most Christians and Messianics do not see this as "conversion", simply that Ruth loved Naomi so much simply joined herself to Naomi's people and G-d. No "conversion" per se took place. Kind of the 'he is a Jew who is one inwardly' sort of thing. Christians and Messianics do not see any need for conversion, simply for a change of heart.

Hope this is somewhat coherent. Have a great day!!!! :wave:

Sephania
22nd November 2004, 12:58 PM
You're not missing anything. She was already married to a son of Beit Lehem ( Naomi's son) but in her choice to not return to her people, and their ways and g-ds don't forget, she spoke a vow that made her no longer a sojourner. Although some may argue that she still is referred to as teh "Moabitess" even after she makes this vow.

debi b
22nd November 2004, 01:32 PM
Makes me think of, "Rabbi, Rabbi, Rabbi..." (3 x's)

I think there is much to respect about the thoughtful process that is not only encouraged, but the norm for Judaism's approach to new people.

The intellectual ascent approach falls far short of the mark.

I believe Ruth did indeed join herself to Adonai's people and His ways.

Buccaneer
22nd November 2004, 08:32 PM
my my. This sounds like the ever-so unpopular replacement theology. It is against the torah for a nonjew to marry a jew. Conversion making anyone considered a jew simply downplays the bloodline requirement and basically amounts that anyone who truely changes his heart is a jew which is replacement.

visionary
22nd November 2004, 08:50 PM
Not replacement as gentile replacing jew but conversion as gentile becomes jew.

Shimshon
22nd November 2004, 09:09 PM
Conversion making anyone considered a jew simply downplays the bloodline requirement and basically amounts that anyone who truely changes his heart is a jew which is replacement.
It's not replacement to become part of something. If I add milk to my cereal, did I replace the cereal with milk. Or did I complete the breakfast bowl making it ready to be eaten?

AlikhnKwizad
22nd November 2004, 09:43 PM
Ok, if a gentile woman marries a Jewish male, makes a vow of life-time commitment to the Jewish deity (denying her pagan gods and culture), and commits to the Jewish people, continues the Jewish biblical traditions in her home, raises her children to be Jewish,... is that replacement???