For *ye* are not the speakers, but the Spirit of your Father which speaks in you. Mat

[joevberry3]

For *ye* are not the speakers, but the Spirit of your Father which speaks in you. Matthew 10:20


Here Jesus is talking to "ALL" 12 disciples before sending them out. (including Judas)
What does this verse mean if it isnt exactly what it says--That "YOUR" Father speaks in you?
How was God Judas's Father if he was never clean or a believer?

Please respond biblically instead of by personal opinions


God Bless

[LynneClomina]

well, it says 'the spirit of your father'. i guess that would be the spirit of whichever father they had... the Spirit of God, or the spirit of the devil.

John 8:44 You are of your father the devil, and the desires of your father you want to do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own resources, for he is a liar and the father of it.

it fits the definition of pneuma:

3. a spirit, i.e. a simple essence, devoid of all or at least all grosser matter, and possessed of the power of knowing, desiring, deciding, and acting
a. a life giving spirit
b. a human soul that has left the body
c. a spirit higher than man but lower than God, i.e. an angel
1. used of demons, or evil spirits, who were conceived as inhabiting the bodies of men
2. the spiritual nature of Christ, higher than the highest angels and equal to God, the divine nature of Christ
4. the disposition or influence which fills and governs the soul of any one
a. the efficient source of any power, affection, emotion, desire, etc.

and, just as satan speaks lies, judas would have spoken lies, too.

[joevberry3]

Actually Lynne, Jesus was sending out the disciples and told them the Father would tell them what they would say. He didnt distinguish 2 different Fathers here, one for 11 disciples and a different one for Judas.
So, if "OUR" Father tells us what to say--he is indeed "OUR" Father.

Joe

[LynneClomina]

true, he didnt differentiate - that is my point. He just said "your father", not "our father"... that seems to me to be wide open. without differentiating at all, he leaves room for the fact that they have different fathers already. 11 Father God, 1 the father of lies. all he was saying, is be assured that whomever is your father will give you the words to speak... 11 will speak the words of God, but... 1 will speak lies/deciet, which he did.

if He didnt want to leave the door open for that, He WOULD have said OUR father, or even just THE father... but he didnt. and would that have been true, then? because Judas' father WASNT God, but satan... so if Jesus had said, OUR father will give you the words, and he was referring to judas as well (which apparantly he was) that wouldnt have been accurate. because Judas didnt give testimony to the Father. he betrayed Jesus instead.... becuase he spoke deceit just as his father the devil.

how's that sound to you? make sense, or no??? :scratch:

[Reformationist]

For *ye* are not the speakers, but the Spirit of your Father which speaks in you. Matthew 10:20


Here Jesus is talking to "ALL" 12 disciples before sending them out. (including Judas)
What does this verse mean if it isnt exactly what it says--That "YOUR" Father speaks in you?
How was God Judas's Father if he was never clean or a believer?

Please respond biblically instead of by personal opinions


God Bless

I think the verse is clear that Jesus is talking about the Spirit of God so we need not change it to protect God. However, I think you're going to far in your interpretation to apply this in a universal sense to the Apostles. It is unnecessary to approach this from a grammatical perspective, even though we certainly could. On that note, the pronouns "ye" [humeis] and "you" [humin] both stem from the greek word "su," which is singular in nature. This, as I said, is irrelevent to the Bible's clarity of the disposition of Judas. Judas was NEVER a child of God. He was ALWAYS opposed to the holy Lordship of Christ. The proper method for understanding this verse is to interpret/understand the implicit, the vagueness of "ye" and "you," in light of the Bible's explicit teachings about Judas' naturally rebellious disposition in the face of God's holiness.

Additionally, the plurality of Jesus' usage of "ye" and "you" is not compromised by Judas' depraved rebelliousness. It would be the proper usage of the word if He were only talking to eleven of the twelve Apostles. It's plural in that it is addressed to more than one of the Apostles but this does not imply that it is addressed to all without exception.

God bless

[LynneClomina]

Additionally, the plurality of Jesus' usage of "ye" and "you" is not compromised by Judas' depraved rebelliousness. It would be the proper usage of the word if He were only talking to eleven of the twelve Apostles. It's plural in that it is addressed to more than one of the Apostles but this does not imply that it is addressed to all without exception.
GOOOD point.